Aptitude Archives - JumpWhere

Jumpwhere Aptitude Contest – November 2024

MS — Fri, 01 Nov 2024 04:30:32 +0000

Instructions for Jumpwhere Aptitude Contest – November 2024:

You can select only one option at a time.
You can take the QUIZ multiple times.
Each question will carry 100 points.
There are altogether 35 questions.
After finishing the test, you will get a score message as shown below.
If you score more than 90% you will get a unique code and email id along with the score message.
Take the screenshot of the entire page containing the message along with the unique code generated.
Lucky winners will get exciting goodies/gift from JUMPWHERE. The final decision will be taken by JUMPWHERE TEAM itself.
This contest is available only till 30-Nov-2024 12:00 PM.
Don’t forget to Like and Follow us on facebook for all the updates.

Jumpwhere Aptitude Contest – November 2024:

Quiz Contest - November

Please wait while the activity loads.
If this activity does not load, try refreshing your browser. Also, this page requires javascript. Please visit using a browser with javascript enabled.

If loading fails, click here to try again

Start

Congratulations - you have completed Quiz Contest - November. You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%. Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%

Your answers are highlighted below.

Question 1

The time taken by a boat to travel upstream is twice the time taken by it to travel downstream. If the speed of the boat in still water is 9 kmph, find the rate of current?

A	2 kmph
B	Data insufficient
C	3 kmph
D	2.5 kmph

Question 1 Explanation:

The downstream speed should be twice the upstream speed
9+x = 2*(9-x)
X= 3

Question 2

A start a business investing Rs.40000.B joins him after 4 months. After a year, they divide the profit earned in the ratio of 6:5. How much did B invest?

A	Rs. 48000
B	Rs. 50000
C	Rs. 45000
D	Rs. 60000

Question 2 Explanation:

[(12*40000)/8x] = 6/5
Solving the equation, x = Rs. 50000

Question 3

Find the simple interest on Rs. 5000 at a certain rate if the compound interest on the same amount for 2 years is Rs. 253.125?

A	Rs. 250
B	Rs. 400
C	Rs. 100
D	Rs. 500

Question 3 Explanation:

Let the rate of interest be r
5000[1+ r /100]² = 5000 + 253.125
[1+ r /100]² = 5253.125 / 5000
Solving which gives
[1+ r/100]² = 1681 / 1600
1+ r/100 = 41 / 40
r = 2.5
Therefore, SI = 5000 * 2 * 2.5 / 100 = Rs. 250

Question 4

P can lay railway track between two stations in 16 days. Q can do the same job in 12 days. With the help of R, they completes the job in 4 days. How much days does it take for R alone to complete the work?

A	9(3/5) days
B	10 days
C	9(1/5) days
D	9(2/5) days

Question 4 Explanation:

Amount of work P can do in 1 day = 1/16
Amount of work Q can do in 1 day = 1/12
Amount of work P, Q and R can together do in 1 day = 1/4
Amount of work R can do in 1 day = 1/4 - (1/16 + 1/12) = 3/16 – 1/12 = 5/48
=> Hence R can do the job on 48/5 days = 9 (3/5) days

Question 5

The fourth proportional to 5, 8, 15 is ?

A	24
B	19
C	18
D	20

Question 5 Explanation:

Let the fourth proportional to 5, 8, 15 be x
Then, 5 : 8 : 15 : x
5x = (8 x 15)
x = (8 x 15) / 5 = 24

Question 6

A vender by selling 12 toffee for a rupee. A man loses 20%. How many for a rupee should he sell to get a gain of 20%?

A	10
B	20
C	12
D	8

Question 6 Explanation:

12 toffee for rs 1 loss 20% then
C.P = 1 * 100/80 = 5/4 on this price we have to gain profit of 20%
So, 5/4 * 120/100 = 3/2
If for Rs. 2/3 we have 12 toffee then for rs 1 we have
= 12 x 2/3
= 8

Question 7

A piece of ribbon 4 yards long is used to make a bow requiring 15 inches of ribbon for each. What is the maximum number of bows that can be made?

A	10
B	9
C	11
D	8

Question 7 Explanation:

To find maximum number of bows that can be made
1 yard = 36 inches
4 yards = 4*36=144 inches
No.of maximum bows that can be made = 144/15 = 9.6
So maximum 9 bows can be made

Question 8

A child went 90 m in the East to look for his father, then he turned right and went 20 m. After this he turned right and after going 30 m he reached to his uncle's house. His father was not there. From there he went 100 m to his north and met his father. How far did he meet his father from the starting point?

A	80 m
B	140 m
C	100 m
D	260 m

Question 8 Explanation:

Question 9

The sum of the ages of A and B is 45 years. Five years ago, the product of their ages was four times the age of A at that time. The present ages of A and B, Respectively are?

A	39 years
B	36 years
C	None of these
D	25 years

Question 9 Explanation:

A+B=45 (A-5)(B-5) = 4(A-5)
B - 5 = 4
B = 9 A = 36

Question 10

Writing ?

A	Novel
B	Skills
C	Pen
D	Author

Question 10 Explanation:

Explanation: The activity or occupation of composing text for publication.

Question 11

In the series 2, 6, 18, 54,.... what will be the 8th term ?

A	4370
B	4374
C	7434
D	7443

Question 11 Explanation:

Clearly, 2 x 3 = 6, 6 x 3 = 18, 18 x 3 = 54,....
. So, the series is a G.P. in which a = 2, r = 3.
Therefore 8th term = ar8-1 = ar7 = 2 x 37 = (2 x 2187) = 4374.

Question 12

A 6% stock yields 8%. The market value of the stock is

A	Rs. 48
B	Rs. 96
C	Rs. 133.33
D	Rs. 75

Question 12 Explanation:

For an income of Rs. 8, Investment = Rs. 100 For an income of Rs. 6, investment = Rs. 100/8 * 6 = Rs. 75 Market value of Rs. 100 stock = Rs. 75

Question 13

Statements: I) A huge truck overturned on the middle of the road last night II) The police had cordoned of entire area in the locality this morning for half of the day

A	Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
B	Both the statement I and II are effects of independent causes
C	Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
D	Both the statement I and II are independent causes
E	Both the statement I and II are effects of some common cause

Question 13 Explanation:

Since a huge truck overturned on the middle of the road last night
so, the police had cordoned off the entire area in the locality last morning for half of the day

Question 14

In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'LEADING' be arranged in such a way that the vowels always come together?

A	480
B	5040
C	360
D	720

Question 14 Explanation:

The word 'LEADING' has 7 different letters.
When the vowels EAI are always together, they can be supposed to form one letter.
Then, we have to arrange the letters LNDG (EAI).
Now, 5 (4 + 1 = 5) letters can be arranged in 5! = 120 ways.
The vowels (EAI) can be arranged among themselves in 3! = 6 ways.
Required number of ways = (120 x 6) = 720.

Question 15

rule	command	dictate
doze	sleep	?

A	Awaken
B	Snoar
C	Govern
D	Hibernate

Question 15 Explanation:

The words above the line show a continuum: Command is more extreme than rule, and dictate is more extreme than command. Below the line, the continuum is as follows: Sleep is more than doze, and hibernate is more than sleep. The other choices are not related in the same way.

Question 16

Three numbers which are co-prime to each other are such that the product of the first two is 551 and that of the last two is 1073. The sum of the three numbers is:

A	60
B	75
C	85
D	65

Question 16 Explanation:

since the numbers are co-prime, they contain only 1 as the common factor.
Also, the given two products have the middle number in common.
So, middle number = H.C.F. of 551 and 1073 = 29;
First number = 551/29 = 19; Third number = 1073/29 = 37.
Required sum = (19 + 29 + 37) = 85.

Question 17

If A + B means A is the mother of B; A - B means A is the brother B; A % B means A is the father of B and A x B means A is the sister of B, which of the following shows that P is the maternal uncle of Q?

A	P - M + N x Q
B	P + S x N - Q
C	Q - S % P
D	Q - N + M x P

Question 17 Explanation:

• P - M → P is the brother of M
• M + N → M is the mother of N
• N x Q → N is the sister of Q
Therefore, P is the maternal uncle of Q.

Question 18

S1. The fragile Yugoslav state has an uncertain future. A. Thus, there will surely be chaos and uncertainty if the people fail to settle their differences. B. Sharp ideological differences already exist in the country. C. Ethnic, regional, linguistic and material disparities are profound. D. The country will also lose the excellent reputation it enjoyed in the international area. S6. At worst, it will once more become vulnerable to international conspiracy and intrigue.

A	ACBD
B	BACD
C	BCAD
D	ADCB

Question 18 Explanation:

The proper order of the four sentences is BCAD

Question 19

Cara, a blue whale participated in a weight loss program at the biggest office. At the end of every month, the decrease in weight from original weight was measured and noted as 1, 2,6,21,86,445,2676. While Cara made a steadfast effort, the weight machine showed an erroneous weight once. What was that?

A	86
B	2676
C	445
D	2

Question 19 Explanation:

This is a number series problem
1, 2,6,21,86,445,2676
The wrong term has to be found out
1 *1+1 = 2
2*2 + 2 = 6
6*3+3 = 21
21*4+4 =88
88*5+5 =445
Hence, 86 is wrong. It should be 88

Question 20

Three pipes A,B, C are attached to a tank. A and B can fill it in 20 and 30 minutes respectively while C can empty it in 15 minutes. If A,B and C are kept open successively for 1 minutes each, how soon will the tank be filled?

A	200 minutes
B	178 minutes
C	180 minutes
D	167 minutes

Question 20 Explanation:

Part of the tank filled in 3 minutes = (1/20) + (1/30) – (1/15) = 1/60
Part filled in 165 minutes = (165/3) * (1/60) = 55/60
Part filled in 167 minutes = (55/60) + (1/20) + (1/30) = 60/60 = 1
The tank is filled in 167 minutes

Question 21

Running at the same constant rate, 6 identical machines can produce a total of 270 bottles per minutes. At this rate, how many bottles could 10 such machines produce in 4 minutes?

A	1500
B	1600
C	1964
D	1800

Question 21 Explanation:

Let the required number of bottles be x More machines, more bottles(direct proportion) Machines = 6: 10 ::270 : x Time(in minutes) = 1:4 :: 270 : x 6 * 1* x= 10* 4* 270 X= (10*4*270) / (6*1) = 20 * 90 X = 1800

Question 22

Statement: Exporters in the capital are alleging that commercial banks are violating a Reserve Bank of India directive to operate a post shipment export credit denominated in foreign currency at international rates from January this year. Courses of Action: I) The officers concerned in the commercial banks are to be suspended. II) The RBI should be asked to stop giving such directives to commercial banks.

A	Only I follows
B	Either I or II follows
C	Neither I nor II follow
D	Only II follows
E	Both I and II follow

Question 22 Explanation:

The statement mentions that the commercial banks violate a directive issued by the RBI.
The remedy is only to make the banks implement the Act.
So, none of the courses follows

Question 23

Two students appeared at an examination. One of them secured 9 marks more than the other and his marks was 56% of the sum of their marks. The marks obtained by them are:

A	39, 30
B	41, 32
C	42, 33
D	43, 34

Question 23 Explanation:

Let their marks be (x + 9) and x.
Then, x + 9 = 56/100 (x + 9 + x)
25(x + 9) = 14(2x + 9)
3x = 99
x = 33
So, their marks are 42 and 33.

Question 24

What is the probability of getting a sum 9 from two throws of a dice ?

A	1/12
B	1/9
C	1/6
D	1/8

Question 24 Explanation:

In two throws of a dice, n(S) = (6 x 6) = 36
Let E = event of getting a sum ={(3, 6), (4, 5), (5, 4), (6, 3)}
Therefore, n(E) / n(S) = 4 / 36 = 1/ 9

Question 25

Statement: Quality of life of a person is not dependent only on his wealth. Assumptions I) The aim of most people is just to acquire more wealth. II) There are some factors other than wealth which contribute to the quality of life. III) Wealth does not contribute to the quality of life at all.

A	Only I is implicit
B	Only II and III are implicit
C	Only I implicit
D	Only II is implicit
E	Only I and II are implicit

Question 25 Explanation:

Clearly, I does not follow from the statement.
So, it is not implicit. The statement mentions that quality of life does not depend only on wealth.
This means that there are some other factors as well, which govern the quality of life.
But this does not imply that wealth does not contribute at all. So, II is implicit while III is not.

Question 26

Statement : Should the tuition fees in all post graduate courses be hiked considerably ?

Arguments :

I. Yes. This will bring some kind of seriousness among the students and will improve quality.

II. No. This will force the meritorious poor students to stay away from post-graduate courses.

A	Only argument I is strong
B	Either I or II is strong
C	Only argument II is strong
D	Neither I nor II is strong
E	Both I and II are strong

Question 26 Explanation:

Clearly seriousness among the students is not because of fees but second argument is strong

Question 27

A train 125 m long passes a man, running at 5 km/hr in the same direction in which the train is going, in 10 seconds. The speed of the train is?

A	55 km/hr
B	50 km/hr
C	54 km/hr
D	45 km/hr

Question 27 Explanation:

Speed of the train relative to man = (125 / 10)
= (25/2) m/sec
= (25 / 2 * 18 / 5) km/hr
= 45 km/hr
Let the speed of the train be x km/hr
Then, relative speed = (x - 5) km/hr
x - 5 = 45 => x = 50 km/hr

Question 28

I) Tom puts on his socks before he puts on his shoes. II) He puts on his shirt before he puts on his jacket. III) Tom puts on his shoes before he puts on his shirt. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A	Uncertain
B	True
C	False

Question 28 Explanation:

There is not enough information to verify the third statement

Question 29

If tee see pee means drink fruit juice, see kee lee means juice is sweet, and lee ree mee means he is intelligent, which word in that language means sweet?

A	kee
B	lee
C	see
D	pee
E	tee

Question 29 Explanation:

In the first and the second statements the common word is juice and the common code word is see. So see means juice. In the second and the third statements, the common word is ‘is’ and the common code is lee. So lee means is. Thus in the second statement, the remaining word sweet is coded as kee. Hence the answer is (2).

Question 30

Find the odd man out 396, 462, 572, 427, 671, 264, ?

A	396
B	264
C	427
D	671

Question 30 Explanation:

In each number except 427, the middle digit is the sum of other two

Question 31

A wooden cube of volume 216 m³ is cut into smaller cubes each of whose side measure 2m. How many smaller cubes have been formed?

A	108
B	54
C	6
D	27

Question 31 Explanation:

Volume of the smaller cubes = a cube = 8m cube
Number of cubes = 216/8 = 27

Question 32

In a can, there is a mixture of milk and water in the ratio 4:5. If it is filled with an additional 8 litres of milk the can would be full and ratio of milk and water would become 6:5. Find the capacity of the can?

A	44
B	52
C	48
D	40

Question 32 Explanation:

Let the capacity of the can be T litres
Quantity of milk in the mixture before adding milk = 4/9 (T - 8)
After adding milk, quantity of milk in the mixture = 6/11 T
6T/11 - 8 = 4/9(T - 8)
10T = 792 - 352 => T = 44

Question 33

There has been bad blood between the two communities even before shouting.

A	Bloody fights
B	Impure blood
C	Quarrels
D	Ill feeling

Question 34

( 0.0203 * 2.92 ) / ( 0.0073 * 14.5 * 0.7 ) = ?

A	2.4.
B	1.45
C	3.25
D	0.8

Question 34 Explanation:

(0.0203 x 2.92) / (0.0073 x 14.5 x 0.7) = (203 x 292) / (73 x 145 x 7) = 4/5 = 0.8

Question 35

Between June 1990 and February 1993, how many months have 31 days ?

A	19
B	18
C	20
D	17

Question 35 Explanation:

In a year, 7 months have 31 days
From Jun ’90 to Feb ‘93
(4 in ‘90) + (7 in ‘91) + (7 in ‘92) + (1 in ‘93) = 19

Once you are finished, click the button below. Any items you have not completed will be marked incorrect. Get Results

There are 35 questions to complete.

If the link is expired, the opportunity is closed or disabled by the company. Check for other opportunities.

QUICK LINKS

Freshers Jobs
Internships Jobs
Free Courses
Challenges

Show JUMPWHERE some love

Become a Part of Our Whatsapp Family

Freshers
Experienced
Aptitude

Become a Part of Our Telegram & LinkedIn Family

Telegram Channel
LinkedIn Page

The post Jumpwhere Aptitude Contest – November 2024 appeared first on JumpWhere.

Jumpwhere Aptitude Contest – October 2024

MS — Sat, 05 Oct 2024 04:29:14 +0000

Instructions for Jumpwhere Aptitude Contest – October 2024:

You can select only one option at a time.
You can take the QUIZ multiple times.
Each question will carry 100 points.
There are altogether 50 questions.
After finishing the test, you will get a score message as shown below.
If you score more than 90% you will get a unique code and email id along with the score message.
Take the screenshot of the entire page containing the message along with the unique code generated.
Lucky winners will get exciting goodies/gift from JUMPWHERE. The final decision will be taken by JUMPWHERE TEAM itself.
This contest is available only till 31-Oct-2024 12:00 PM.
Don’t forget to Like and Follow us on facebook for all the updates.

Jumpwhere Aptitude Contest – October 2024:

Quiz Contest - October

Please wait while the activity loads.
If this activity does not load, try refreshing your browser. Also, this page requires javascript. Please visit using a browser with javascript enabled.

If loading fails, click here to try again

Start

Congratulations - you have completed Quiz Contest - October. You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%. Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%

Your answers are highlighted below.

Question 1

In a mixture of milk and water, the proportion of milk by weight was 80%. If, in a 180 gm mixture, 36 gms of pure milk is added, what would be the percentage of milk in the mixture formed?

A	87.5%
B	84%
C	100%
D	83.33%

Question 1 Explanation:

Percentage of milk in the mixture formed = [80/100 (180) + 36] / (180 + 36) * 100% = (144 + 36) /216 * 100% = 5/6 * 100% = 83.33%

Question 2

4.036 divided by 0.04 gives?

A	10.09
B	None of these
C	1.009
D	100.9

Question 2 Explanation:

(4.036 / 0.04) = (403.6 / 4) = 100.9

Question 3

The teacher said to Mahesh, “Congratulations! Wish you success in life.”

A	The teacher wished congratulations and success in life to Mahesh
B	The teacher congratulated Mahesh and said with you success in life
C	The teacher to congratulated Mahesh and wished him success in life
D	The teacher said congratulations to Mahesh and wished him success in life

Question 4

How many days are there between 10th March,2011 and 20th July,2011 (excluding both days)?

A	131
B	132
C	134
D	133

Question 4 Explanation:

21 days in March [11th – 31st]
30 days in April
31 days in May
30 days in June
19 days in July [1st – 19th]
Total = 131 days

Question 5

HATCH : HOLD :: ?

A	door : room
B	boat : barge
C	rudder : anchor
D	courtyard : terrace

Question 5 Explanation:

(PART AND THE WHOLE) One enters a hold (of a ship) through the hatch; one enters a room through the door. (D)

Question 6

Pointing to a photograph of a boy Suresh said, "He is the son of the only son of my mother." How is Suresh related to that boy?

A	Uncle
B	Cousin
C	Brother
D	Father

Question 6 Explanation:

The boy in the photograph is the only son of the son of Suresh's mother i.e., the son of Suresh. Hence, Suresh is the father of boy.

Question 7

A and B invest Rs.150000 and Rs. 200000 in a business respectively. A withdraws an amount of Rs.50000 after 6 months .B withdraws an amount of Rs.50000 after 8 months. If the profit earned is Rs. 74000, find A’s share of the profit?

A	Rs. 40000
B	Rs. 13000
C	Rs. 30000
D	Rs. 5000

Question 7 Explanation:

A:B =[(150000*6)+(100000*6)] : [(200000*8)+(150000*4)]
= 15:22
A’s share = (15/37)*74000 = Rs. 30000

Question 8

A batsman scored 110 runs which included 3 boundaries and 8 sixes. What percent of his total score did he make by running between the wickets?

A	55%
B	45 5/11%
C	54 6/11%
D	45%

Question 8 Explanation:

Number of runs made by running = 110 - (3 x 4 + 8 x 6)
= 110 - (60)
= 50.
Required percentage = ( (50 x 100)/100)% = 5/4511 %

Question 9

1.not 2.hotel 3.comfortable 4.was 5.the

A	53412
B	52413
C	34521
D	41352
E	34152

Question 9 Explanation:

Explanation : " The hotel was not comfortable "

Question 10

From a group of 7 men and 6 women, five persons are to be selected to form a committee so that at least 3 men are there on the committee. In how many ways can it be done?

A	645
B	564
C	756
D	735

Question 10 Explanation:

We may have (3 men and 2 women) or (4 men and 1 woman) or (5 men only). Required number of ways = (⁷C₃ x ⁶C₂) + (⁷C₄ x ⁶C₁) + (⁷C₅)
(7 x 6 x 5)/(3x2x1) x (6 x 5/2x1) + (⁷C₃ x ⁶C₁) + (⁷C₂)
=525 +(7x6x5/3x2x1 x 6) + (7x6/2x1)
= (525 + 210 + 21)
=756

Question 11

Two trains of equal length are running on parallel lines in the same direction at 46 km/hr and 36 km/hr. The faster train passes the slower train in 36 seconds. The length of each train is?

A	72 m
B	82 m
C	80 m
D	50 m

Question 11 Explanation:

Let the length of each train be x metres
Then, distance covered = 2xmetres
Relative speed = (46 - 36) km/hr
= (10 * 5 / 18) m/sec
= (25 / 9) m/sec
Therefore,( 2x / 36) = (25 / 9)
2x = 100 x = 50

Question 12

3, 10, 101, ?

A	10201
B	10101
C	11012
D	10202

Question 12 Explanation:

Each term in the series is obtained by adding 1 to the square of the preceding term.
So, missing term = 101² + 1 = 10202.

Question 13

In a certain code 3456 is coded as ROPE & 15546 is coded as APPLE. Then how is 54613 coded?

A	RPPEO
B	POEAR
C	ROPEA
D	None of these

Question 13 Explanation:

Clearly in the given figures, the numbers are coded as follows.
3 4 5 6 1 4.
R O P E A L.
So 54613 is coded as POEAR. The answer is (3)

Question 14

Find the odd man out 10, 25, 45, 54, 60, 75, 80 ?

A	54
B	45
C	10
D	75

Question 14 Explanation:

Each of the numbers except 54 is multiple of 5

Question 15

If 40% of a number is equal to two-third of another number, what is the ratio of first number to the second number ?

A	5 : 3
B	2 : 5
C	7 : 3
D	3 : 7

Question 15 Explanation:

Let 40% of A = 2 / 3 B
Then, 40A / 100 = 2B / 3
2A / 5 = 2B / 3
A / B = (2 / 3 * 5 / 2) = 5 / 3
A : B = 5 : 3

Question 16

Bury the hatchet ?

A	Joint operation of killing
B	To make peace
C	To break peace
D	None of above

Question 16 Explanation:

Example : His family members should bury the hatched to make peace in his home.

Question 17

Statement: Since its launching in 1981, Vayudoot has so far accumulated losses amounting to Rs 153 crore. Courses of Action: I) Vayudoot should be directed to reduce wasteful expenditure and to increase passenger fare. II) An amount of about Rs 300 crore should be provided to Vayudoot to make the airliner economically viable.

A	Only I follows
B	Both I and II follow
C	Only II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Either I or II follows

Question 17 Explanation:

Clearly, for better economic gain, losses should be reduced and income increased.
So, only course I follows.

Question 18

Monopoly ?

A	Gigantic
B	Rich
C	Exclusive
D	Corrupt

Question 18 Explanation:

Explanation: The exclusive possession or control of the supply of or trade in a commodity or service

Question 19

A certain amount becomes Rs. 5760 in 2 years and Rs. 6912 in 3 years. What is the principal amount and the rate of interest?

A	Rs. 7000
B	Rs. 4000
C	Rs. 3000
D	Rs. 2500

Question 19 Explanation:

S.I on Rs. 5760 for 1 year = 6912 – 5760 = Rs. 1152
Therefore, Rate of interest for 1 year = 100 * 1152/5760 * 1 = 20%
Let the principal be p
Then, Principal = p[1 + 20 / 100]²= 5760
Solving which gives Principal = Rs. 4000

Question 20

Ratio of Jehin's age to Nitin's age is equal to 4 : 3, Jehin will be 26 years old after 6 years. How old is Nitin now?

A	21 yrs
B	15 yrs
C	19 yrs
D	12 yrs

Question 20 Explanation:

J = 26 - 6 = 20
J - N = 4 : 3
N = 15

Question 21

P, T, V, R, M, D, K and W are sitting around a circular table facing the Centre. V is second to the left of T. T is fourth to the right of M. D and P are not immediate neighbors of T. D is third to the right of P. W is not an immediate neighbor of P. P is to the immediate left of K. What is R’s position with respect to V ?

A	Third to the right
B	Second to the left
C	Third to the left
D	Fifth to the right

Question 21 Explanation:

R's position with respect to V is third to the right

Question 22

S1. The effect of exercise on the immune system is a field of intense research. A. For example, if patients suffering from recurrent sore throats, the practice of sarvangasana greatly reduces the frequency of infections. B. There is definite evidence that exercise helps better functioning of the immune cells. C. In yoga, regional immunity can be improved because the blood can be flushed into any area. D. This increases the concentration of immunity cells in those areas. S6. Immunity is also improved by de-stressing of the body and the mind.

A	CDAB
B	BDAC
C	DBAC
D	BCDA

Question 22 Explanation:

The proper order for the four sentences is BCDA

Question 23

palette	easel	brush
textbook	lesson plan	?

A	Teacher
B	Painter
C	Artist
D	Report card

Question 23 Explanation:

The objects above the line are all things used by an artist. The objects below the line are all things used by a teacher.

Question 24

Two cubes of sides 3m, 4m and 5m are melted to form a new cube. The side of the new cube is ?

A	12 m
B	6 m
C	8 m
D	10 m

Question 24 Explanation:

Total volume of the three cubes
= 3cube + 3cube + 5cube = 216 m cube
Side of the new cube = 6m

Question 25

Read the each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is 'E'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any). (solve as per the direction given above)

A	that no problem forced by our society
B	No error
C	as this problem is
D	All of you will agree with me
E	is a grave and intractable

Question 25 Explanation:

That no other problem faced by our country

Question 26

Which number comes next ? 402, 388, 410, 396, 418, 404, ____

A	426
B	412
C	416
D	422

Question 26 Explanation:

388+8 = 396 396+8 = 404
410+8 = 418 418+8 = 426
The two series are combined together

Question 27

Study the following figure and answer the question "How many artists are players?"

A	16
B	8
C	5
D	25

Question 27 Explanation:

The no. of artists who are players is 22 + 3 = 25

Question 28

His plan was so complicated that it floored his listeners.

A	annoyed
B	encouraged
C	puzzled
D	entertained

Question 29

A vendor loses a selling price of 4 oranges on selling 36 oranges. His loss percentage is ?

A	None of these
B	11
C	10
D	12

Question 29 Explanation:

If there is loss on selling item = selling price of an article
To find loss%, simply add 36 to 4 = 40
Loss % = 4/40 * 100 = 10

Question 30

REVEALED

A	Denied
B	Ignored
C	Concealed
D	Overlooked

Question 30 Explanation:

REVEALED means make (previously unknown or secret information) known to others.

Question 31

Present opposing arguments or evidence ?

A	Rebuff
B	Reprimand
C	Rebut
D	Criticise

Question 31 Explanation:

Rebut claim or prove that (evidence or an accusation) is false.

Question 32

In a march past, seven persons are standing in a row. Q is standing left to R but right to P. O is standing right to N and left to P. Similarly, S is standing right to R and left to T. Find out who is standing in middle?

A	O
B	Q
C	P
D	R

Question 32 Explanation:

Q is left to R and to the right of P i,e P, Q, R.
O is to the right of N and left of P i,e N, O, P.
S is to the right of R and left of T i,e R, S, T.
Clearly, Q is in the middle.

Question 33

Statements: All buildings are chalks. No chalk is toffee. Conclusions: I) No building is toffee II) All chalks are buildings

A	Only conclusion II follows
B	Neither I nor II follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Only conclusion I follows

Question 33 Explanation:

Question 34

Find the highest common factor of 36 and 84

A	12
B	4
C	18
D	6

Question 34 Explanation:

36 = 22 x 32
84 = 22 x 3 x 7
H.C.F. = 22 x 3 = 12.

Question 35

Sundar runs 20 m towards East and turns to right and runs 10 m. Then he turns to the right and runs 9 m. Again he turns to right and runs 5 m. After this he turns to left and runs 12 m and finally he turns to right and 6 m. Now to which direction is Sundar facing?

A	North
B	East
C	South
D	West

Question 35 Explanation:

Therefore, it is clear that Sundar will face towards North

Question 36

A boat travels 10 km upstream and 5 km downstream in 3 hrs. If the speed of the boat in still water is 7 kmph, find the speed of the stream?

A	5 kmph
B	2 kmph
C	3 kmph
D	4 kmph

Question 36 Explanation:

Let the speed of the stream be x kmph
Upstream speed = (7-x) kmph
Downstream speed = (7+x) kmph
Time taken to travel upstream = (10/ (7-x)) hrs
Time taken to travel upstream = (5/ (7+x)) hrs
(10/ (7-x)) + (5/ (7+x)) = 3
3 x 2 + 5x – 42 = 0
Solving this equation, x= 3

Question 37

Statement : Should education be made compulsory for all children up to the age of 14 ?

Arguments :

I. Yes. This will help to eradicate the system of forced employment of children.

II. Yes. This would increase the standard of living.

A	Only argument I is strong
B	Neither I nor II is strong
C	Only argument II is strong
D	Either I or II is strong
E	Both I and II are strong

Question 37 Explanation:

None of the argument stand valid

Question 38

Pipes P and Q can empty a tank in 1 hr and 1.5 hrs respectively. Pipes R and S can fill a tank in 2 hrs and 2.5 hrs respectively. The tank is filled to its capacity of 15 litres and all four pipes are opened simultaneously. How much water remains in the tank after an hour?

A	3.5 liters
B	5 liters
C	7 liters
D	2.5 liters

Question 38 Explanation:

Part of tank emptied by P in an hour = 1
Part of tank emptied by Q in an hour = 1/1.5 = 2/3
Part of tank filled by R in an hour = ½
Part of tank filled by S in an hour = 1/ 2.5 = 2/5
Part of tank emptied in an hour = (1+ (2/3)) - (1/2 + (2/5)) = 23/30
Water remaining in the tank = 15*7/30 = 3.5 liters

Question 39

Statement : Good voice is a natural gift but one has to keep practising to improve and excel well in the field of music.

Conclusions :

I. Natural gifts need nurturing and care.

II. Even though your voice is not good, one can keep practising.

A	Only conclusion II follows
B	Only conclusion I follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Both I and II follow
E	Neither I nor II follows

Question 39 Explanation:

Conclusion I follows to statement, but second is not stated in statement. So it do not follow

Question 40

If he would have revised his first draft, he would have received a better grade.

A	had revised
B	had of revised
C	would have revised
D	would revise
E	could of revised

Question 40 Explanation:

With conditional-subjunctive constructions, never add the subjunctive auxiliary verb (would/could/would have/could have) to the conditional (If) half [(A), (C), (E)]; it is only used in the subjunctive half.
It is never correct to substitute the preposition "of" for the auxiliary verb "have" [(C), (D)].

Question 41

Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence 1.Caste 2.Family 3.Newly married couple 4.Clan 5.Species

A	4, 5, 3, 2, 1
B	3, 2, 1, 4, 5
C	3, 4, 5, 1, 2
D	2, 3, 1, 4, 5

Question 41 Explanation:

Explanation: The correct order is :
Newly married Couple Family Caste Clan Species 3 2 1 4 5

Question 42

A bag contains 2 red, 3 green and 2 blue balls. Two balls are drawn at random. What is the probability that none of the balls drawn is blue?

A	11/21
B	2/7
C	10/21
D	5/7

Question 42 Explanation:

Total number of balls = (2 + 3 + 2) = 7
Let S be the sample space
Then, n(S) = Number of ways of drawing 2 balls out of 7
= 7C₂ = (7 x 6) / (2 x 1) = 21
Let E = Event of drawing 2 balls, none of which is blue
n(E) = Number of ways of drawing 2 balls out of (2 + 3) balls
= ⁵C₂
= (5 x 4) / (2 x 1)
= 10
Therefore P(E) = n(E) / n(S) = 10 / 21

Question 43

Statements: I) The staff of Airport Authorities called off the strike they were observing in protest against privatization II) The staff of Airport Authorities went on strike anticipating a threat to their jobs

A	Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
B	Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause
C	Both the statements I and II are independent causes
D	Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
E	Both the statements I and II are effects of independent cause

Question 43 Explanation:

Both the statements I and II are effects of independent cause

Question 44

Statement: The X-Airlines has decided to increase the passenger fare by 15 percent with immediate effect. Assumptions I) The demand for seats of X-Airlines may remain unchanged even after the hike of fare. II) Other airline companies may also hike the passenger fares.

A	Only assumption II is implicit
B	Both I and II are implicit
C	Only assumption I is implicit
D	Either I or II is implicit
E	Neither I nor II is implicit

Question 44 Explanation:

Clearly, such decisions are taken only after making sure that it will not affect the company's business adversely. So, I is implicit. However, the impact of this increase on other airlines cannot be ascertained. So, II is not implicit.

Question 45

Which of the following number is divisible by 4 ?

A	100234
B	123458
C	10224
D	1123346

Question 45 Explanation:

If the last two digits of the number is divisible by 4, then we can say that the number is divisible by 4

Question 46

8 children and 12 men complete a certain piece of work in 9 days. If each child takes twice the time taken by a man to finish the work, in how many days will 12 men finish the same work?

A	22 days
B	16 days
C	12 days
D	26 days

Question 46 Explanation:

2 children = 1 man  (8 children + 12 men) = 16 men  Less men, more days( Indirect proportion )  12 : 16 :: 9: x  12x= (16*9)  12x = 144  X= 144/12  X= 12 days

Question 47

P is able to do a piece of work in 15 days and Q can do the same work in 20 days. If they can work together for 4 days, what is the fraction of work left?

A	8/15
B	7/15
C	2/11
D	11/15

Question 47 Explanation:

Amount of work P can do in 1 day = 1/15
Amount of work Q can do in 1 day = 1/20
Amount of work P and Q can do in 1 day = 1/15 + 1/20 = 7/60
Amount of work P and Q can together do in 4 days = 4 * (7/60) = 7/15
Fraction of work left = 1 – 7/15 = 8/15

Question 48

I) A toothpick is useful. II) Useful things are valuable. III) A toothpick is valuable. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A	True
B	Uncertain
C	False

Question 48 Explanation:

To the extent that a toothpick is useful, it has value

Question 49

DEBACLE

A	Collapse
B	Disgrace
C	Decline
D	Defeat

Question 49 Explanation:

DEBACLE means a sudden and ignominious failure; a fiasco.

Question 50

Y investing Rs. 1620 in 8% stock, Sandeep earns Rs. 135. The stock is then quoted at :

A	Rs. 108
B	Rs. 106
C	Rs. 80
D	Rs. 96

Question 50 Explanation:

To earn Rs. 135, investment = Rs. 1620 To earn Rs. 8, investment = Rs. (1620/135) * 8 = Rs. 96 Market value of Rs. 100 stock = Rs. 96

Once you are finished, click the button below. Any items you have not completed will be marked incorrect. Get Results

There are 50 questions to complete.

QUICK LINKS

Freshers Jobs Internships JobsFree Courses Challenges

Show JUMPWHERE some love

Become a Part of Our Whatsapp Family:

Freshers Experienced Aptitude

Become a Part of Our Telegram & LinkedIn Family:

Telegram Channel LinkedIn Page

The post Jumpwhere Aptitude Contest – October 2024 appeared first on JumpWhere.

HCF and LCM

MS — Mon, 08 Aug 2022 05:45:21 +0000

Highest Common Factor (H.C.F) or Greatest Common Divisor (G.C.D.):

The H.C.F. of two or more than two numbers is the greatest number that divides each of them exactly. There are two methods of finding the H.C.F. of a given set of numbers:

Factorization Method: Express the each one of the given numbers as the product of prime factors. The product of least powers of common prime factors gives H.C.F.

Division Method: Suppose we have to find the H.C.F. of two given numbers, divide the larger by the smaller one. Now, divide the divisor by the remainder. Repeat the process of dividing the preceding number by the remainder last obtained till zero is obtained as remainder. The last divisor is required H.C.F.

Finding the H.C.F. of more than two numbers: Suppose we have to find the H.C.F. of three numbers then, H.C.F. of [(H.C.F. of any two) and (the third number)] gives the H.C.F. of three given number. Similarly, the H.C.F. of more than three numbers may be obtained.

Least Common Multiple (L.C.M.):

The least number which is exactly divisible by each one of the given numbers is called their L.C.M. There are two methods of finding the L.C.M. of a given set of numbers:

Factorization Method: Resolve each one of the given numbers into a product of prime factors. Then, L.C.M. is the product of highest powers of all the factors.

Division Method (short-cut): Arrange the given numbers in a rwo in any order. Divide by a number which divided exactly at least two of the given numbers and carry forward the numbers which are not divisible. Repeat the above process till no two of the numbers are divisible by the same number except 1. The product of the divisors and the undivided numbers is the required L.C.M. of the given numbers.

Product of two numbers = Product of their H.C.F. and L.C.M.

Co-primes: Two numbers are said to be co-primes if their H.C.F. is 1.

H.C.F. and L.C.M. of Fractions:

H.C.F = H.C.F of Numerators / L.C.M of Denominators
L.C.M = L.C.M of Numerators / H.C.F of Denominators

Instruction to take HCF Aptitude Test

Click on start to start taking the test.
Click on the option (A, B, C or D) to figure out the right answer.
You can answer multiple times till you get the right answer.
Once you get the right answer, explanations (if any) for the same will be showcased down.
On click of list, you get to see total no of questions, no of questions you answered and no of questions pending to answer.
On click of question number you will go to that particular question.
On click of END your test will end.
On click of ‘Get Results’ you will get to see correct answer for each questions.

Hcf and Lcm – Question and Answers

Please wait while the activity loads.
If this activity does not load, try refreshing your browser. Also, this page requires javascript. Please visit using a browser with javascript enabled.

If loading fails, click here to try again

Congratulations – you have completed Hcf and Lcm – Question and Answers. You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%. Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%

Your answers are highlighted below.

Question 1

A teacher can divide her class into groups of 5,13, and 17. What is the smallest possible strength of the class?

A	835
B	940
C	1105
D	1220

Question 1 Explanation:

Smallest possible strength of the class will be L.C.M of 5,13,17 ans:1105

Question 2

The least number, which when divided by 12, 15, 20 and 54 leaves in each case a remainder of 8 is:

A	544
B	548
C	504
D	536

Question 2 Explanation:

Required number = (L.C.M. of 12, 15, 20, 54) + 8
= 540 + 8
= 548.

Question 3

Find the highest common factor of 36 and 84.

A	4
B	6
C	12
D	18

Question 3 Explanation:

36 = 22 x 32
84 = 22 x 3 x 7
H.C.F. = 22 x 3 = 12.

Question 4

Three numbers which are co-prime to each other are such that the product of the first two is 551 and that of the last two is 1073. The sum of the three numbers is:

A	85
B	75
C	65
D	60

Question 4 Explanation:

Question 5

The greatest possible length which can be used to measure exactly the lengths 7 m, 3 m 85 cm, 12 m 95 cm is:

A	15 cm
B	35 cm
C	25 cm
D	52 cm

Question 5 Explanation:

Required length = H.C.F. of 700 cm, 385 cm and 1295 cm = 35 cm.

Question 6

The greatest number which on dividing 1657 and 2037 leaves remainders 6 and 5 respectively is:

A	127
B	305
C	235
D	123

Question 6 Explanation:

Required number = H.C.F. of (1657 – 6) and (2037 – 5)
= H.C.F. of 1651 and 2032 = 127.

Question 7

Which of the following has the most number of divisors?

A	176
B	182
C	99
D	101

Question 7 Explanation:

Option A, 176 = 1 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 11.
Option B, 182 = 1 x 2 x 7 x 13.
Option C, 99 = 1 x 3 x 3 x 11.
Option D, 101 = 1 x 101.
Divisors of 99 are 1, 3, 9, 11, 33, 99.
Divisors of 176 are 1, 2, 4, 8, 11, 16, 22, 44, 88 and 176.
Divisors of 182 are 1, 2, 7, 13, 14, 26, 91 and 182..
Hence, 176 have the most number of divisors

Question 8

The L.C.M. of two numbers is 48. The numbers are in the ratio 2 : 3. Then sum of the number is:

A	30
B	40
C	38
D	36

Question 8 Explanation:

Let the numbers be 2x and 3x.
Then, their L.C.M. = 6x.
So, 6x = 48 or x = 8
The numbers are 16 and 24.
Hence, required sum = (16 + 24) = 40.

Question 9

The H.C.F. of two numbers is 11 and their L.C.M. is 7700. If one of the numbers is 275, then the other is:

A	267
B	318
C	308
D	279

Question 9 Explanation:

Other number = (11 x 7700/275) = 308.

Question 10

What will be the least number which when doubled will be exactly divisible by 12, 18, 21 and 30?

A	1260
B	630
C	2524
D	None of these

Question 10 Explanation:

L.C.M. of 12, 18, 21 30 2 | 12 – 18 – 21 – 30
—————————-
= 2 x 3 x 2 x 3 x 7 x 5 = 1260. 3 | 6 – 9 – 21 – 15
—————————- Required number = (1260 ÷ 2) | 2 – 3 – 7 – 5
= 630.

Question 11

The ratio of two numbers is 3 : 4 and their H.C.F. is 4. Their L.C.M. is:

A	12
B	68
C	48
D	78

Question 11 Explanation:

Let the numbers be 3x and 4x. Then, their H.C.F. = x. So, x = 4.
So, the numbers 12 and 16.
L.C.M. of 12 and 16 = 48.

Question 12

The smallest number which when diminished by 7, is divisible 12, 16, 18, 21 and 28 is:

A	1008
B	1032
C	1015
D	1022

Question 12 Explanation:

Required number = (L.C.M. of 12,16, 18, 21, 28) + 7
= 1008 + 7
= 1015

Question 13

252 can be expressed as a product of primes as:

A	2 x 3 x 3 x 3 x 7
B	3 x 3 x 3 x 3 x 7
C	2 x 2 x 2 x 3 x 7
D	2 x 2 x 3 x 3 x 7

Question 13 Explanation:

Clearly, 252 = 2 x 2 x 3 x 3 x 7.

Question 14

A, B and C start at the same time in the same direction to run around a circular stadium. A completes a round in 252 seconds, B in 308 seconds and c in 198 seconds, all starting at the same point. After what time will they again at the starting point ?

A	26 minutes and 18 seconds
B	45 minutes
C	46 minutes and 12 seconds
D	42 minutes and 36 second

Question 14 Explanation:

L.C.M. of 252, 308 and 198 = 2772.
So, A, B and C will again meet at the starting point in 2772 sec. i.e., 46 min. 12 sec.

Question 15

The least number which when divided by 5, 6 , 7 and 8 leaves a remainder 3, but when divided by 9 leave no remainder, is:

A	1677
B	2523
C	1683
D	3363

Question 15 Explanation:

L.C.M. of 5, 6, 7, 8 = 840.
Required number is of the form 840k + 3
Least value of k for which (840k + 3) is divisible by 9 is k = 2.
Required number = (840 x 2 + 3) = 1683.

Question 16

The least number which should be added to 2497 so that the sum is exactly divisible by 5, 6, 4 and 3 is:

A	13
B	33
C	23
D	43

Question 16 Explanation:

L.C.M. of 5, 6, 4 and 3 = 60.
On dividing 2497 by 60, the remainder is 37.
Number to be added = (60 – 37) = 23.

Question 17

The least multiple of 7, which leaves a remainder of 4, when divided by 6, 9, 15 and 18 is:

A	114
B	294
C	364
D	364

Question 17 Explanation:

L.C.M. of 6, 9, 15 and 18 is 90.
Let required number be 90k + 4, which is multiple of 7.
Least value of k for which (90k + 4) is divisible by 7 is k = 4.
Required number = (90 x 4) + 4 = 364.

Question 18

The greatest number which on dividing 1657 and 2037 leaves remainders 6 and 5 respectively, is:

A	123
B	127
C	235
D	305

Question 18 Explanation:

Required number = H.C.F. of (1657 – 6) and (2037 – 5)
= H.C.F. of 1651 and 2032 = 127.

Question 19

Which of the following has the most number of divisors?

A	99
B	101
C	176
D	182

Question 19 Explanation:

99 = 1 x 3 x 3 x 11
101 = 1 x 101
176 = 1 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 11
182 = 1 x 2 x 7 x 13
So, divisors of 99 are 1, 3, 9, 11, 33, .99
Divisors of 101 are 1 and 101
Divisors of 176 are 1, 2, 4, 8, 11, 16, 22, 44, 88 and 176
Divisors of 182 are 1, 2, 7, 13, 14, 26, 91 and 182.
Hence, 176 has the most number of divisors.

Question 20

The L.C.M. of two numbers is 48. The numbers are in the ratio 2 : 3. Then sum of the number is:

A	28
B	32
C	40
D	64

Question 20 Explanation:

Let the numbers be 2x and 3x.
Then, their L.C.M. = 6x. .
So, 6x = 48 or x = 8..
The numbers are 16 and 24..
Hence, required sum = (16 + 24) = 40.

Question 21

The H.C.F.

9	,	12	,	18	and	21	is:
10		25		35		40

A	3/5
B	252/5
C	3/1400
D	63/700

Question 21 Explanation:

Required H.C.F. = H.C.F. of 9, 12, 18, 21 = 3
L.C.M. of 10, 25, 35, 40 1400

Question 22

If the sum of two numbers is 55 and the H.C.F. and L.C.M. of these numbers are 5 and 120 respectively, then the sum of the reciprocals of the numbers is equal to:

A	55 601
B	601 55
C	11 120
D	120 11

Question 22 Explanation:

Let the numbers be a and b.
Then, a + b = 55 and ab = 5 x 120 = 600.
The required sum = 1/a+1/b = a+b/ab == 55/600 = 11/200

Question 23

The greatest possible length which can be used to measure exactly the lengths 7 m, 3 m 85 cm, 12 m 95 cm is:

A	15 cm
B	25 cm
C	35 cm
D	42 cm

Question 23 Explanation:

Required length = H.C.F. of 700 cm, 385 cm and 1295 cm = 35 cm.

Question 24

Three numbers which are co-prime to each other are such that the product of the first two is 551 and that of the last two is 1073. The sum of the three numbers is:

A	75
B	81
C	85
D	89

Question 24 Explanation:

Since the numbers are co-prime, they contain only 1 as the common factor.
Also, the given two products have the middle number in common.
So, middle number = H.C.F. of 551 and 1073 = 29;
First number = (551/29)=19
Third number = (1073/29)=37
Required sum = (19 + 29 + 37) = 85.

Question 25

Find the highest common factor of 36 and 84.

A	4
B	6
C	12
D	18

Question 25 Explanation:

36 = 22 x 32
84 = 22 x 3 x 7
H.C.F. = 22 x 3 = 12.

Question 26

Which of the following fraction is the largest ?

A	7/8
B	13/16
C	31/40
D	63/80

Question 26 Explanation:

L.C.M. of 8, 16, 40 and 80 = 80. 7/8 = 70/80 ; 13/16 = 65/80 ; 31/40 = 62/80
Since,70/80>65/80>63/80>62/80>, so 7/8,>13/16>63/80>31/40
So, 7/8 is the largest.

Question 27

The least number, which when divided by 12, 15, 20 and 54 leaves in each case a remainder of 8 is:

A	504
B	536
C	544
D	548

Question 27 Explanation:

Required number = (L.C.M. of 12, 15, 20, 54) + 8
= 540 + 8
= 548.

Question 28

The H.C.F. of two numbers is 11 and their L.C.M. is 7700. If one of the numbers is 275, then the other is:

A	279
B	283
C	308
D	318

Question 28 Explanation:

Other number = (11 x 7700/275) = 308.

Question 29

What will be the least number which when doubled will be exactly divisible by 12, 18, 21 and 30 ?

A	196
B	630
C	1260
D	2520

Question 29 Explanation:

L.C.M. of 12, 18, 21 30 2 | 12 – 18 – 21 – 30
= 2 x 3 x 2 x 3 x 7 x 5 = 1260. 3 | 6 – 9 – 21 – 15
—————————- Required number = (1260 ÷ 2) | 2 – 3 – 7 – 5
= 630.

Question 30

The ratio of two numbers is 3 : 4 and their H.C.F. is 4. Their L.C.M. is:

A	12
B	16
C	24
D	48

Question 30 Explanation:

Let the numbers be 3x and 4x. Then, their H.C.F. = x. So, x = 4.
So, the numbers 12 and 16.
L.C.M. of 12 and 16 = 48.

Question 31

The smallest number which when diminished by 7, is divisible 12, 16, 18, 21 and 28 is:

A	1008
B	1015
C	1022
D	1032

Question 31 Explanation:

Required number = (L.C.M. of 12,16, 18, 21, 28) + 7
= 1008 + 7
= 1015

Question 32

252 can be expressed as a product of primes as:

A	2 x 2 x 3 x 3 x 7
B	2 x 2 x 2 x 3 x 7
C	3 x 3 x 3 x 3 x 7
D	2 x 3 x 3 x 3 x 7

Question 32 Explanation:

Clearly, 252 = 2 x 2 x 3 x 3 x 7.

Question 33

Find the lowest common multiple of 24, 36 and 40.

A	120
B	240
C	360
D	480

Question 33 Explanation:

2 | 24 – 36 – 40
——————–
2 | 12 – 18 – 20
——————–
2 | 6 – 9 – 10
——————-
3 | 3 – 9 – 5
——————-
| 1 – 3 – 5
L.C.M. = 2 x 2 x 2 x 3 x 3 x 5 = 360.

Question 34

The least number which should be added to 2497 so that the sum is exactly divisible by 5, 6, 4 and 3 is:

A	3
B	13
C	23
D	33

Question 34 Explanation:

L.C.M. of 5, 6, 4 and 3 = 60.
On dividing 2497 by 60, the remainder is 37.
Number to be added = (60 – 37) = 23.

Question 35

The least number which when divided by 5, 6 , 7 and 8 leaves a remainder 3, but when divided by 9 leaves no remainder, is:

A	1677
B	1683
C	2523
D	3363

Question 35 Explanation:

L.C.M. of 5, 6, 7, 8 = 840.
Required number is of the form 840k + 3
Least value of k for which (840k + 3) is divisible by 9 is k = 2.
Required number = (840 x 2 + 3) = 1683.

Question 36

A	26 minutes and 18 seconds
B	42 minutes and 36 seconds
C	45 minutes
D	46 minutes and 12 seconds

Question 36 Explanation:

L.C.M. of 252, 308 and 198 = 2772.
So, A, B and C will again meet at the starting point in 2772 sec. i.e., 46 min. 12 sec.

Question 37

The product of two numbers is 4107. If the H.C.F. of these numbers is 37, then the greater number is:

A	101
B	107
C	111
D	185

Question 37 Explanation:

Let the numbers be 37a and 37b.
Then, 37a x 37b = 4107
ab = 3.
Now, co-primes with product 3 are (1, 3).
So, the required numbers are (37 x 1, 37 x 3) i.e., (37, 111).
Greater number = 111.

Question 38

Three number are in the ratio of 3 : 4 : 5 and their L.C.M. is 2400. Their H.C.F. is:

A	40
B	80
C	120
D	200

Question 38 Explanation:

Let the numbers be 3x, 4x and 5x.
Then, their L.C.M. = 60x.
So, 60x = 2400 or x = 40.
The numbers are (3 x 40), (4 x 40) and (5 x 40).
Hence, required H.C.F. = 40.

Question 39

The least multiple of 7, which leaves a remainder of 4, when divided by 6, 9, 15 and 18 is:

A	74
B	94
C	184
D	364

Question 39 Explanation:

L.C.M. of 6, 9, 15 and 18 is 90.
Let required number be 90k + 4, which is multiple of 7.
Least value of k for which (90k + 4) is divisible by 7 is k = 4.
Required number = (90 x 4) + 4 = 364.

Question 40

The H.C.F. of two numbers is 23 and the other two factors of their L.C.M. are 13 and 14. The larger of the two numbers is:

A	276
B	299
C	322
D	345

Question 40 Explanation:

Clearly, the numbers are (23 x 13) and (23 x 14).
Larger number = (23 x 14) = 322.

Question 41

Six bells commence tolling together and toll at intervals of 2, 4, 6, 8 10 and 12 seconds respectively. In 30 minutes, how many times do they toll together?

A	4
B	10
C	15
D	16

Question 41 Explanation:

L.C.M. of 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12 is 120.
So, the bells will toll together after every 120 seconds(2 minutes).
In 30 minutes, they will toll together 30/2 + 1 = 16 times.

Question 42

Let N be the greatest number that will divide 1305, 4665 and 6905, leaving the same remainder in each case. Then sum of the digits in N is:

A	4
B	5
C	6
D	8

Question 42 Explanation:

N = H.C.F. of (4665 – 1305), (6905 – 4665) and (6905 – 1305)
= H.C.F. of 3360, 2240 and 5600 = 1120.
Sum of digits in N = ( 1 + 1 + 2 + 0 ) = 4

Question 43

The least number which when divided by 16, 18 and 21, leave the remainder 3, 5 and 8 respectively is:

A	982
B	893
C	1024
D	995

Question 43 Explanation:

16———-3
18———-5 CD = 13
21———-8
LCM od 16,18,21 = 1008
1008-13 = 995

Question 44

Four bells begin to toll together respectively at the intervals of 8, 10, 12 and 16 seconds. After how many seconds will they toll together again?

A	246 seconds
B	242 seconds
C	240 seconds
D	243 seconds

Question 44 Explanation:

LCM = 240

Question 45

A heap of coconuts is divided into groups of 2, 3 and 5 and each time one coconut is left over. The least number of Coconuts in the heap is?

A	31
B	41
C	51
D	61

Question 45 Explanation:

LCM = 30 => 30 + 1 = 31

Question 46

Five bells first begin to toll together and then at intervals of 5, 10, 15, 20 and 25 seconds respectively. After what interval of time will they toll again together? s?

A	5 min
B	5.5 min
C	5.2 min
D	61

Question 46 Explanation:

LCM = 300/60 = 5 min

Question 47

HCF and LCM two numbers are 12 and 396 respectively. If one of the numbers is 36, then the other number is?

A	36
B	66
C	132
D	264

Question 47 Explanation:

12 * 396 = 36 * x
x = 132

Question 48

The L.C.M of two numbers is 495 and their H.C.F is 5. If the sum of the numbers is 10, then their difference is:

A	10
B	46
C	70
D	90

Question 48 Explanation:

Let the numbers be x and (100 – x).
Then, x(100 – x) = 5 * 495
x2 – 100x + 2475 = 0
(x – 55)(x – 45) = 0
x = 55 or 45
The numbers are 45 and 55.
Required difference = 55 – 45 = 10.

Question 49

If the sum of two numbers is 55 and the H.C.F and L.C.M of these numbers are 5 and 120 respectively, then the sum of the reciprocal of the numbers is equal to:

A	55/601
B	601/55
C	11/120
D	120/11

Question 49 Explanation:

Let the numbers be a and b.
Then, a + b = 55 and ab = 5 * 120 = 600.
Required sum = 1/a + 1/b = (a + b)/ab = 55/600 = 11/120.

Once you are finished, click the button below. Any items you have not completed will be marked incorrect. Get Results

There are 49 questions to complete.

The post HCF and LCM appeared first on JumpWhere.

Verbal Analogies

MS — Sat, 16 Sep 2017 23:23:07 +0000

Explanation/ Important formulas

Instruction:

Each question consist of two words which have a certain relationship to each other followed by four pairs of related words, Select the pair which has the same relationship.

Instructions to take Aptitude Test

Click on start to start taking the test.
Click on the option (A, B, C or D) to figure out the right answer.
You can answer multiple times till you get the right answer.
Once you get the right answer, explanations (if any) for the same will be showcased down.
On click of list, you get to see total no of questions, no of questions you answered and no of questions pending to answer.
On click of question number you will go to that particular question.
On click of END your test will end.
On click of ‘Get Results’ you will get to see correct answer for each questions.

Verbal Analogies – Question and Answers

Please wait while the activity loads.
If this activity does not load, try refreshing your browser. Also, this page requires javascript. Please visit using a browser with javascript enabled.

If loading fails, click here to try again

Congratulations – you have completed Verbal Analogies – Question and Answers. You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%. Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%

Your answers are highlighted below.

Question 1

RETICENT : TALK :: ?

A	abstemious : devour
B	tasteless : savor
C	likely : conjecture
D	cranky: grumble

Question 1 Explanation:

(ANTONYM VARIANT) A reticent (meaning reserved in style) person does not talk; an abstemious (meaning given to eating in moderation) person-does not devour (meaning eat like a glutton).
(A) {The related antonym relationship is;reticent: talkative :: abstemious : devour}

Question 2

SHARD : POTTERY :: ?

A	hill: cliff
B	ash : fire
C	hair : wig
D	splinter: wood

Question 2 Explanation:

(PART AND THE WHOLE) A shard is a broken piece of pottery; a splinter is a broken piece of wood. (A wig is made up of a number of hairs.
You cannot say that wood is made up of splinters, or pottery is made up of shards.) (D)

Question 3

HATCH : HOLD :: ?

A	rudder : anchor
B	boat : barge
C	courtyard : terrace
D	door : room

Question 3 Explanation:

(PART AND THE WHOLE) One enters a hold (of a ship) through the hatch; one enters a room through the door. (D)

Question 4

EXPEL : SCHOOL :: ?

A	export : factory
B	exile : nation
C	escape : penitentiary
D	vacate : building

Question 4 Explanation:

(CAUSE AND EFFECT) A person expelled from school cannot reenter it; a person exiled (meaning banished legally) from a country cannot reenter it. (B)

Question 5

BACTERIA : DECOMPOSITON :: ?

A	volcano : eruption
B	antibiotic : injection
C	yeast : fermentation
D	oxygen : treatment

Question 5 Explanation:

(CAUSE AND EFFECT) Bacteria are minute organisms which cause decomposition; yeasts are minute organisms which cause fermentation (meaning chemical reaction induced by living organisms). (C)

Question 6

PLAIN : AUSTERE :: ?

A	neutral : detached
B	clean : sterile
C	lonely : gloomy
D	deserted : barren

Question 6 Explanation:

(DEGREE OF INTENSITY) Being austere (meaning bare) is a heightened form of being plain; being sterile (meaning free from bacteria or other micro-organisms) is a heightened form of being clean. {The pairs (neutral, detached); (deserted, barren) and (eloquent, talkative) are mere synonyms.} (B)

Question 7

SEDATIVE : SLEEP :: ?

A	challenging : knowledge
B	mnemonic : memory
C	dramatic : story
D	vocal : eloquence

Question 7 Explanation:

(THIHG AND PURPOSE) A sedative acts as an aid to sleep; a mnemonic (such as V1BGYOR, a word made of the first letters of the sequential colors of the rainbow) acts as an aid to memory. (B)

Question 8

STUTTER : SPEECH :: ?

A	blare : hearing
B	aroma : smell
C	astigmatism : sight
D	novocain : touch

Question 8 Explanation:

(DEFINITION) (A reference to the first words in the answer choices shows that stutter has been used as a noun in this question.)
Stutter (meaning a speech impediment) is a defect in speech, astigmatism (meaning a visual defect) is a defect in sight. (C)

Question 9

PALATE : MOUTH :: ?

A	rainbow : sky
B	rivulet: dam
C	hill: range
D	ceiling : room

Question 9 Explanation:

(DEFINITION) Palate is the roof of the mouth; ceiling is the roof of the room. (D)

Question 10

LAVA : VOLCANO :: ?

A	ice : glass
B	cascade : precipice
C	steam : geyser
D	avalanche : ice

Question 10 Explanation:

(DEFINING CHARACTERSTIC) A volcano gives out lava (meaning molten rock); a geyser (meaning a natural hot spring) gives out steam.

Question 11

REFEREE : FIELD :: ?

A	experimenter: result
B	arbitrator: deadlock
C	gladiator: rignt
D	judge : courtroom

Question 11 Explanation:

(DEFINING CHARACTERSTIC) A volcano gives out lava (meaning molten rock); a geyser (meaning a natural hot spring) gives out steam.

Question 12

COMPREHEND : UNINTELLIGIBLE :: ?

A	swallow : edible
B	circumvent: risky
C	accumulate : insignmcant
D	control : ungovernable

Question 12 Explanation:

(ANTONYM VARIANT) Anything that cannot be comprehended (meaning understood) is unintelligible; anything that cannot be controlled is ungovernable.(D) {the related antonym relationship is comprehensible: unintelligible :: controllable: ungovernable}

Question 13

APOLOGIZE : PENITENT :: ?

A	worsen : haughty
B	countersign : venerable
C	extenuate : blameworthy
D	appreciate : impressed

Question 13 Explanation:

(DEFINING CHARACTERISTIC) A person who is penitent (meaning regretful) apologizes readily; a person who is impressed (meaning favorably affected) appreciates readily. (D)

Question 14

SHIP : LOG :: ?

A	individual : diary
B	inventory : emporium
C	catalog : team
D	bulletin : incident

Question 14 Explanation:

(THING AND PURPOSE) The purpose of a log is to chronologically record the movements of a ship; the purpose of a diary is to chronologically record the doings of a person. (A)

Question 15

ELEGY : POETRY :: ?

A	parable : story
B	dirge : music
C	harp : string
D	rhyme : sound

Question 15 Explanation:

(DEFINITION) An elegy is mournful poetry; a dirge is mournful music. (B)

Question 16

EULOGY : PRAISE :: ?

A	paean : difficulty
B	encomium : censure
C	requiem : happiness
D	elegy : mourning

Question 16 Explanation:

(DEFINITION) A eulogy is a speech praising a dead person; an elegy is a poem mourning a dead person. (D)

Question 17

ILL – MANNERED : BOOR :: ?

A	generous : monarch
B	naive : dupe
C	quarrelsome : lawyer
D	spontaneous : extrovert

Question 17 Explanation:

(DEFINING CHARACTERISTIC) A boor (meaning a person with no refinement) is ill-mannered; a dupe (meaning an easily deceived person) is naive (meaning lacking in worldliness). (B)

Question 18

FALLOW : FIELD :: ?

A	burnished : surface
B	idle : machinery
C	contaminated : water
D	polished : metal

Question 18 Explanation:

(DEFINITION) Field that is left fallow (meaning unseeded) does not produce crops; machinery that is left idle does not produce goods. (B)

Question 19

MARGIN : PAGE :: ?

A	step : ladder
B	stalk : plant
C	water : bowl
D	outskirts : town

Question 19 Explanation:

(DEFINITION) The margin forms the outer periphery of a page; the outskirts form the outer periphery of a town. (D)

Question 20

XENOPHOBE : FOREIGNERS :: ?

A	patriot : motherland
B	conservative : government
C	boor : children
D	misanthrope : people

Question 20 Explanation:

(DEFINING CHARACTERISTIC) A xenophobe hates foreigners; a misanthrope hates people. (D)

Question 21

HONEST : CHEAT :: ?

A	pliable : betray
B	deceitful : scheme
C	irritable : retaliate
D	implacable : compromise

Question 21 Explanation:

(DEFINING CHARACTERISTIC) An honest person does not cheat; an implacable (meaning unyielding ) person does not compromise. (D)

Question 22

MEANDER : DASH :: ?

A	throw : catch
B	hit : assault
C	sail : glide
D	waft : plummet

Question 22 Explanation:

(DEGREE OF INTENSITY) Dashing (meaning rushing violently)is an intensified form of meandering (meaning wandering aimlessly); plummeting (meaning falling abruptly downward ) is an intensified form of wafting (meaning drifting gently in the air).(D)

Question 23

FRAGMENT : BONE :: ?

A	quartz : stone
B	rim : wheel
C	ash : coal
D	shard : pottery

Question 23 Explanation:

(CAUSE AND EFFECT) Distillation (meaning a physical process of evaporating and condensing a liquid) increases purity; leavening (meaning an agent that causes raising or fermentation ) increases volume. (A)

Question 24

BACTERIUM : MEDIUM :: ?

A	meadow : grass
B	snake : egg
C	parasite : host
D	predator: den

Question 24 Explanation:

(DEFINING CHARACTERISTIC) A connoisseur (meaning a person of informed and discriminating taste) is known for his taste; an altruist (meaning a person with unselfish concern for the welfare of others) is known for his selflessness. (B)

Question 25

ENERVATE : VIGOUR :: ?

A	change : substance
B	vindicate : crime
C	verify : validity
D	adulterate : purity

Question 25 Explanation:

(THING AND PURPOSE) An alias (meaning a fictitious name ) is used to mislead another; an epithet (meaning a contemptuous nickname ) is used to disparage (meaning insult) another. (D)

Question 26

PEDANTIC : LEARNED :: ?

A	simplistic : guileless
B	moralistic : principled
C	positivistic : experimental
D	biased : prejudiced

Question 26 Explanation:

(DEFINITION ) To conspire means to plot together; to cohabit means to reside together(A)

Question 27

VAPORIZED : HEAT :: ?

A	diffused : gas
B	hardened: pressure
C	purified : distillate
D	abraded : friction

Question 27 Explanation:

(DEFINING CHARACTERISTIC) A vigilant (meaning alert) person cannot be easily ambushed (meaning attacked from a hidden position); alert (meaning watchful) person cannot be easily gulled (meaning cheated). (D)

Question 28

TRIM : HAIR :: ?

A	harvest: corn
B	prune : hedge
C	clip : bouquet
D	pluck: flower

Question 28 Explanation:

(ACTION AND PURPOSE ) Hair is trimmed in order to make it shorter; hedge is pruned in order to make it shorter. (B)

Question 29

CRINGE : DREAD :: ?

A	fidget : nervousness
B	obstruct : disappointment
C	entertain : amusement
D	suspect : anxiety

Question 29 Explanation:

(CAUSE AND ITS EFFECT ) One cringes (meaning shrinks back in fear) because of dread (meaning terror); one fidgets (meaning behaves in a restless manner) because of nervousness.

Question 30

BRAKE : RETARD :: ?

A	file : gather
B	bump : dent
C	surmise : attune
D	shunt : divert

Question 30 Explanation:

(SYNONYMS) To brake and to retard are synonyms (both meaning to cause something to move slowly); to divert and to shunt are synonyms (both meaning to cause something to move in a different course).(D)

Once you are finished, click the button below. Any items you have not completed will be marked incorrect. Get Results

There are 30 questions to complete.

The post Verbal Analogies appeared first on JumpWhere.

Synonyms

MS — Fri, 15 Sep 2017 23:22:45 +0000

Explanation/ Important formulas

Instruction:

Find a word or phrase that means exactly or nearly the same as another word or phrase in the same language, for example shut is a synonym of close.

Instructions to take Aptitude Test

Synonyms – Question and Answers

Please wait while the activity loads.
If this activity does not load, try refreshing your browser. Also, this page requires javascript. Please visit using a browser with javascript enabled.

If loading fails, click here to try again

Congratulations – you have completed Synonyms – Question and Answers. You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%. Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%

Your answers are highlighted below.

Question 1

UNCOUTH

A	Ungraceful
B	Rough
C	Slovenly
D	Dirty

Question 1 Explanation:

UNCOUTH means lacking good manners, refinement, or grace.

Question 2

COMMENSURATE

A	Measurable
B	Proportionate
C	Begining
D	Appropriate

Question 2 Explanation:

COMMENSURATE means Corresponding in size or degree; in proportion.

Question 3

DEBACLE

A	Collapse
B	Decline
C	Defeat
D	Disgrace

Question 3 Explanation:

DEBACLE means a sudden and ignominious failure; a fiasco.

Question 4

DISTINCTION

A	Diffusion
B	Disagreement
C	Different
D	Degree

Question 4 Explanation:

DISTINCTION means a difference or contrast between similar things or people.

Question 5

VITUPERATE

A	Abuse
B	Appreciate
C	Copy
D	Encourage

Question 5 Explanation:

VITUPERATE means blame or insult (someone) in strong or violent language.

Question 6

BRIEF

A	Small
B	Short
C	Little
D	Limited

Question 6 Explanation:

BRIEF means a short and concise statement or written item. 6. an outline, the form of which is determined by set rules, of all the possible arguments and information on one side of a controversy: a debater’s brief.

Question 7

EMBEZZLE

A	Remunerate
B	Clear
C	Balance
D	Misappropriate

Question 7 Explanation:

EMBEZZLE means steal or misappropriate (money placed in one’s trust or belonging to the organization for which one works).

Question 8

PRECARIOUS

A	Safe
B	Brittle
C	Perilous
D	Unsafe

Question 8 Explanation:

PRECARIOUS means not securely held or in position; dangerously likely to fall or collapse.

Question 9

DELEGATE

A	Representative
B	Officer
C	Member
D	Servant

Question 9 Explanation:

DELEGATE means a person sent or authorized to represent others, in particular an elected representative sent to a conference.

Question 10

LETHARGY

A	Serenity
B	Laxity
C	Active
D	Bold

Question 10 Explanation:

LETHARGY means a lack of energy and enthusiasm.

Question 11

ZEALOT

A	Fanatic
B	Apathy
C	Liberal
D	Impious

Question 11 Explanation:

ZEALOT means a person who is fanatical and uncompromising in pursuit of their religious, political, or other ideals.

Question 12

PREVARICATE

A	Truth
B	Early
C	Lie
D	Delay

Question 12 Explanation:

PREVARICATE means speak or act in an evasive way.

Question 13

VANITY

A	Pride
B	Modesty
C	Bashful
D	Uncertain

Question 13 Explanation:

VANITY means excessive pride in or admiration of one’s own appearance or achievements.

Question 14

VALOUR

A	Stable
B	Coward
C	Heroism
D	Fear

Question 14 Explanation:

VALOUR means great courage in the face of danger, especially in battle.

Question 15

VAGRANT

A	Roving
B	Stable
C	Honoured
D	Stubborn

Question 15 Explanation:

VAGRANT means a person without a settled home or regular work who wanders from place to place and lives by begging.

Question 16

TENACIOUS

A	Calm
B	Fragile
C	Unstable
D	Dogged

Question 16 Explanation:

TENACIOUS means tending to keep a firm hold of something; clinging or adhering closely.

Question 17

INNOCUOUS

A	not eager
B	harmless
C	not frank
D	not capable

Question 17 Explanation:

INNOCUOUS mean not harmful or offensive.

Question 18

FOMENT

A	interrogate
B	spoil
C	spray
D	incite

Question 18 Explanation:

FOMENT means instigate or stir up (an undesirable or violent sentiment or course of action).

Question 19

MINION

A	dependent
B	Monster
C	host
D	majori

Question 19 Explanation:

MINION means a follower or underling of a powerful person, especially a servile or unimportant one.

Question 20

EGREGIOUS

A	belittle
B	persuade
C	friendly
D	bad

Question 20 Explanation:

EGREGIOUS means outstandingly bad; shocking.

Question 21

REMONSTRATE

A	display
B	protest
C	resign
D	reiterate

Question 21 Explanation:

REMONSTRATE means make a forcefully reproachful protest

Question 22

WAYLAY

A	rest
B	journey
C	song
D	ambush

Question 22 Explanation:

WAYLAY means stop or interrupt (someone) and detain them in conversation or trouble them in some other way.

Question 23

SOLEMN

A	serious
B	amusing
C	harmful
D	speech

Question 23 Explanation:

SOLEMN means formal and dignified.

Question 24

INSINUATE

A	Lecture
B	Suggest
C	Rectify
D	Report

Question 24 Explanation:

INSINUATE means suggest or hint (something bad) in an indirect and unpleasant way.

Question 25

REFRACTORY

A	unmanageble
B	sinkable
C	useless
D	vanted

Question 25 Explanation:

REFRACTORY means stubborn or unmanageable.

Question 26

TARRY

A	disturb
B	polish
C	surpass
D	linger

Question 26 Explanation:

TARRY means like or covered with tar.

Question 27

EFFACE

A	encourage
B	rub out
C	recognise
D	countenance

Question 27 Explanation:

EFFACE means erase (a mark) from a surface.

Question 28

APPORTION

A	divide
B	delay
C	approach
D	cut

Question 28 Explanation:

APPORTION means divide up and share out.

Question 29

EDUCE

A	induce
B	spray
C	forget
D	elicit

Question 29 Explanation:

EDUCE means bring out or develop (something latent or potential).

Question 30

INSCRUTABLE

A	illusion
B	shy
C	wary
D	mysterious

Question 30 Explanation:

INSCRUTABLE means impossible to understand or interpret.

Question 31

VOCIFEROUS

A	strident
B	numerous
C	bountiful
D	garrulous

Question 31 Explanation:

VOCIFEROUS means expressing or characterized by vehement opinions.

Question 32

REDOLENT

A	shy
B	odorous
C	bellicose
D	ubiquitous

Question 32 Explanation:

REDOLENT means strongly reminiscent or suggestive of.

Question 33

PROTRACT

A	hire
B	corner
C	delay
D	fold

Question 33 Explanation:

PROTRACT means prolong.

Question 34

UNPRETENTIOUS

A	humble
B	clever
C	insipid
D	aver

Question 34 Explanation:

UNPRETENTIOUS means not attempting to impress others with an appearance of greater importance, talent, or culture than is actually possessed.

Question 35

INTERDICT

A	acclaim
B	decide
C	fret
D	prohibit

Question 35 Explanation:

INTERDICT means an authoritative prohibition, in particular.

Question 36

VOUCH

A	Disqualify
B	Reliable
C	Roving
D	Endorse

Question 36 Explanation:

VOUCH means assert or confirm as a result of one’s own experience the truth or accuracy of (something).

Question 37

VENOM

A	Praise
B	Love
C	Resentment
D	Remedy

Question 37 Explanation:

VENOM means a poisonous substance secreted by animals such as snakes, spiders, and scorpions and typically injected into prey or aggressors by biting or stinging.

Question 38

ABSTAIN

A	Refrain
B	Ingest
C	Take in
D	Consume

Question 38 Explanation:

ABSTAIN means restrain oneself from doing or enjoying something.

Question 39

CAMOUFLAGE

A	Aggressive
B	Deception
C	Vigilant
D	Honour

Question 39 Explanation:

CAMOUFLAGE means the disguising of military personnel, equipment, and installations by painting or covering them to make them blend in with their surroundings.

Question 40

ALACRITY

A	Mollify
B	Swiftness
C	Laziness
D	Lethargy

Question 40 Explanation:

ALACRITY means brisk and cheerful readiness.

Once you are finished, click the button below. Any items you have not completed will be marked incorrect. Get Results

There are 40 questions to complete.

The post Synonyms appeared first on JumpWhere.

Spotting Errors

MS — Thu, 14 Sep 2017 23:23:18 +0000

Explanation/ Important formulas

Instruction:

In order to solve questions on spotting errors, the first step you should take is to read the complete sentence carefully. In most of the cases, you will be able to detect the error in the first go itself.While reading the entire sentence, you must carefully check the subject-verb agreement.
The next step is to carefully check all spellings. Many a times, an error can be spotted in spellings.
If you can still not detect the error or you are still unsure of the correct answer, then you must read each individual part of the sentence and closely examine which part consists of an error.

Instructions to take Aptitude Test

Spotting Errors – Question and Answers

Please wait while the activity loads.
If this activity does not load, try refreshing your browser. Also, this page requires javascript. Please visit using a browser with javascript enabled.

If loading fails, click here to try again

Congratulations – you have completed Spotting Errors – Question and Answers. You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%. Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%

Your answers are highlighted below.

Question 1