Logical Reasoning Archives - JumpWhere

Venn Diagrams

MS — Wed, 06 Sep 2017 06:23:32 +0000

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Venn Diagrams as an alternate way of depicting sets. Venn Diagrams consist of closed shapes, generally circles, which represent sets. The capital letter outside the circle denotes the name of the set while the letters inside the circle denote the elements of the set.
The various operations of sets are represented by partial or complete overlap of these closed figures. Regions of overlap represent elements that are shared by sets.
In practice, sets are generally represented by circles. The universal set is represented by a rectangle that encloses all other sets. Venn Diagrams are generally not drawn to scale

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Venn Diagrams - Question and Answers

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Question 1

Study the following figure and answer the question "How many doctors are neither artists nor players" ?

A	17
B	5
C	10
D	30

Question 1 Explanation:

The number of doctors who are neither artists nor players is 17.

Question 2

Study the following figure and answer the question "How many doctors are both players and artists" ?

A	22
B	8
C	3
D	30

Question 2 Explanation:

The number of doctors who are both players and artists is 3.

Question 3

Study the following figure and answer the question "How many artists are players" ?

A	5
B	8
C	25
D	16

Question 3 Explanation:

The number of artists who are players is 22 + 3 = 25.

Question 4

Study the following figure and answer the question "How many players are neither artists nor doctors" ?

A	25
B	17
C	5
D	10

Question 4 Explanation:

The number of players who are neither artists nor doctors is 25.

Question 5

Study the following figure and answer the question "How many artists are neither players nor doctors" ?

A	10
B	17
C	30
D	15

Question 5 Explanation:

The number of artists who are neither players nor doctors is 30.

Question 6

Study the diagram given below and answer "How many persons who take tea and wine but not coffee" ?

A	20
B	17
C	25
D	15

Question 6 Explanation:

17 persons take tea and wine but not coffee.

Question 7

Study the diagram given below and answer "How many persons are there who take both tea and coffee but not wine" ?

A	22
B	17
C	7
D	20

Question 7 Explanation:

Number of persons was taken both tea and coffee but not wine is 7.

Question 8

Study the diagram given below and answer "How many persons take wine" ?

A	100
B	82
C	92
D	122

Question 8 Explanation:

122 persons take wine.

Question 9

Study the diagram given below and answer "How many persons are there who takes only coffee" ?

A	90
B	45
C	25
D	20

Question 9 Explanation:

25 + 20 = 45

Question 10

Study the diagram given below and answer "How many persons takes all the three" ?

A	20
B	17
C	25
D	15

Question 10 Explanation:

15 persons take all the three.

Question 11

In the following diagram the boys who are athletic and are disciplined are indicated by which number?

A	1
B	2
C	10
D	6

Question 11 Explanation:

The required number is 2.

Question 12

In an organization of pollution control board, engineers are represented by a circle, legal experts by a square and environmentalist by a triangle. Who is most represented in the board as shown in the following figure ?

A	Environmentalists
B	Legal Experts
C	Engineers with legal background
D	Environmentalists with Engineering background

Question 12 Explanation:

Environmentalists with Engineering background is most represented in the board.

Question 13

In the following figure triangle represents 'girls', square players and circle-coach. Which part of the diagram represents the girls who are player but not coach?

A	P
B	Q
C	R
D	S

Question 13 Explanation:

Q part of the figure represents those girls who are players but not coach.

Question 14

The diagram given below represents those students who play Cricket, Football and Kabaddi. Study the diagram and identify the students who play all the three games.?

A	P + Q + R
B	V + T
C	S + T + V
D	S

Question 14 Explanation:

S indicates those students who play all three games.

Question 15

In the figure given below, square represents doctors, triangle represents ladies and circle represents surgeon. By which letter the ladies who doctor and surgeon both are represented ?

A	U
B	T
C	S
D	P

Question 15 Explanation:

The letter ladies who doctor and surgeon both are represented is T

Question 16

Study the diagram and identify the people who can speak only one language ?

A	L + M + O
B	K + J + I
C	K
D	I

Question 16 Explanation:

The regions represented by the letters K, J and I denote such people who can speak only one language.

Question 17

In the given figure if Triangle represents healthy people, Square represents old persons and Circle represents men then What is the number of those men who are healthy but not old ?

A	3
B	4
C	6
D	2

Question 17 Explanation:

The number of those men who are healthy but not old is 2

Question 18

If hospital management requires only married trained nurses for operation theater, which part of diagram should be chosen by him ?

A	7
B	4
C	5
D	6

Question 18 Explanation:

The part of diagram should be chosen by him is 5

Question 19

By which number, married but untrained nurses in the hospital are represented ?

A	4
B	6
C	7
D	5

Question 19 Explanation:

Married but untrained nurses in the hospital are represented by 7

Question 20

By which numbers trained nurses are represented ?

A	3, 6
B	7, 5
C	5, 6
D	1, 5

Question 20 Explanation:

Trained nurses are represented by number 5, 6

Question 21

What is represented by the number 7 ?

A	Married nurses in the hospital
B	Trained nurses
C	Unmarried trained nurses
D	Married trained nurses

Question 21 Explanation:

Number 7 represents Married nurses in the hospital

Question 22

By which number, the trained unmarried nurses in the hospital are represented ?

A	6
B	5
C	7
D	4

Question 22 Explanation:

The trained unmarried nurses in the hospital are in the number represented by 4.

Question 23

In the following diagram rectangle represents men, Triangle represents educated, Circle represents urban and square represents government employees "Which one of the following represents the educated men but not urban" ?

A	9
B	5
C	4
D	11

Question 23 Explanation:

The number 11 represents the educated men but not urban.

Question 24

In the following figure small square represents the persons who know English, triangle to those who know Marathi, big square to those who know Telugu and circle to those who know Hindi. In the different regions of the figures from 1 to 12 are given.

"How many persons can speak English and Hindi both the languages only" ?

A	5
B	8
C	7
D	18

Question 24 Explanation:

Number of persons who can speak English and Hindi both only is 5.

Question 25

"How many persons can speak Marathi and Telugu both" ?

A	10
B	11
C	13
D	None of these

Question 25 Explanation:

6 + 7 = 13.

Question 26

"How many persons can speak only English" ?

A	9
B	12
C	7
D	19

Question 26 Explanation:

Number of persons were can speak English is 12.

Question 27

"How many persons can speak English, Hindi and Telugu" ?

A	8
B	2
C	7
D	None of these

Question 27 Explanation:

Number of persons who can speak English, Hindi and Telugu is 2.

Question 28

"How many persons can speak all the languages" ?

A	1
B	8
C	2
D	None

Question 28 Explanation:

There is no such person who can speak all the languages.

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Syllogism

MS — Tue, 05 Sep 2017 04:23:36 +0000

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Explanation:

Syllogisms is one of the easy to win questions in reasoning, but we have seen so many aspirants are finding difficult in solving these questions.
Usually Venn diagram method (Easy) is used to solve these but they will consume time in case of NO/Possibility conclusion cases. So here we are explaining the concept of Syllogism with some examples by using some simple rules.First and foremost have a quick glance at the Main rules to solve Syllogism Problem.

All + All = All
All + No = No
All + Some = No Conclusion
Some + All = Some
Some + No = Some Not
Some + Some = No Conclusion
No + All = Some Not (Reversed)
No + Some = Some Not (Reversed)
No + No = No Conclusion
Some Not / Some Not Reversed + Anything = No Conclusion

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Syllogism - Question and Answers

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Question 1

Statements: Some dogs are bats. Some bats are cats.

Conclusions:

I) Some dogs are cats.

II) Some cats are dogs.

A	Only (1) conclusion follows
B	Only (2) conclusion follows
C	Either (1) or (2) follows
D	Neither (1) nor (2) follows

Question 1 Explanation:

Question 2

Statements: All the trucks are flies. Some scooters are flies.

Conclusions:

I) All the trucks are scooters.

II) Some scooters are trucks.

A	Only (1) conclusion follows
B	Only (2) conclusion follows
C	Either (1) or (2) follows
D	Neither (1) nor (2) follows

Question 2 Explanation:

Question 3

Statements: All buildings are chalks. No chalk is toffee.

Conclusions:

I) No building is toffee

II) All chalks are buildings

A	Only (1) conclusion follows
B	Only (2) conclusion follows
C	Either (1) or (2) follows
D	Neither (1) nor (2) follows

Question 3 Explanation:

Question 4

Statements: All cars are cats. All fans are cats.

Conclusions:

I) All cars are fans.

II) Some fans are cars.

A	Only (1) conclusion follows
B	Only (2) conclusion follows
C	Either (1) or (2) follows
D	Neither (1) nor (2) follows

Question 4 Explanation:

Question 5

Statements: All cups are books. All books are shirts.

Conclusions:

I) Some cups are not shirts.

II) Some shirts are cups.

A	Only (1) conclusion follows
B	Only (2) conclusion follows
C	Either (1) or (2) follows
D	Neither (1) nor (2) follows

Question 5 Explanation:

Question 6

Statements: Some cows are crows. Some crows are elephants.

Conclusions:

I) Some cows are elephants.

II) All crows are elephants.

A	Only (1) conclusion follows
B	Only (2) conclusion follows
C	Either (1) or (2) follows
D	Neither (1) nor (2) follows

Question 6 Explanation:

Question 7

Statements: All the harmoniums are instruments. All the instruments are flutes.

Conclusions:

I) All the flutes are instruments.

II) All the harmoniums are flutes.

A	Only (1) conclusion follows
B	Only (2) conclusion follows
C	Either (1) or (2) follows
D	Neither (1) nor (2) follows

Question 7 Explanation:

Question 8

Statements: Some ants are parrots. All the parrots are apples.

Conclusions:

I) All the apples are parrots.

II) Some ants are apples.

A	Only (1) conclusion follows
B	Only (2) conclusion follows
C	Either (1) or (2) follows
D	Neither (1) nor (2) follows

Question 8 Explanation:

Question 9

Statements: Some actors are singers. All the singers are dancers.

Conclusions:

I) Some actors are dancers.

II) No singer is actor.

A	Only (1) conclusion follows
B	Only (2) conclusion follows
C	Either (1) or (2) follows
D	Neither (1) nor (2) follows

Question 9 Explanation:

Question 10

Statements: Some mangoes are yellow. Some tixo are mangoes.

Conclusions:

I) Some mangoes are green.

II) Tixo is a yellow.

A	Only (1) conclusion follows
B	Only (2) conclusion follows
C	Either (1) or (2) follows
D	Neither (1) nor (2) follows

Question 10 Explanation:

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Statement and Conclusion

MS — Mon, 04 Sep 2017 06:14:45 +0000

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Explanation:

A statement is a group of words arranged to form a meaningful sentence. A conclusion is a judgment or decision reached after consideration about the given statement.

Different types of questions covered in this chapter are as follows.

One statement with Two Conclusion Based
More than Two Statements and Conclusion Based

A conclusion is an opinion or decision that is formed after a period of thought or research on some facts or sentence stated by someone. A consequent effect has always to be analysed before reaching to the final result or conclusion of a given premise. This requires a very systematic and logical approach.

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Statement and Conclusion - Question and Answers

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Question 1

Statement : Company X has marketed the product. Go ahead; purchase it if price and quality are your considerations.

Conclusions :

I. The product must be good in quality.

II. The price of product must be reasonable.

A	Only conclusion I follows
B	Only conclusion II follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Both I and II follow

Question 1 Explanation:

Both conclusions follow as per statement.

Question 2

Statement : The world is neither good nor evil, each man manufactures a world for himself.

Conclusions :

I. Some people find this world quite good.

II. Some people find this world quite bad.

A	Only conclusion I follows
B	Only conclusion II follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Both I and II follow

Question 2 Explanation:

Do not take this question just as a question, it is much more than that.

Question 3

Statement : Good voice is a natural gift but one has to keep practising to improve and excel well in the field of music.

Conclusions :

I. Natural gifts need nurturing and care.

II. Even though your voice is not good, one can keep practising.

A	Only conclusion I follows
B	Only conclusion II follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Both I and II follow

Question 3 Explanation:

I conclusion follows to statement, but second is not stated in statement so it do not follow.

Question 4

Statement : All the organised persons find time for rest. Sunita, in-spite of her busy schedule, finds time for rest.

Conclusions :

I. Sunita is an organised person.

II. Sunita is an industrious person.

A	Only conclusion I follows
B	Only conclusion II follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Neither I nor II follows

Question 4 Explanation:

Sunita has a busy schedule. This means that she is industrious. But still she finds the time for rest.
This means that she is an organised person. So both conclusions follow.

Question 5

Statement: Until our country achieves economic equality, political freedom and democracy would be meaningless.

Conclusions:

I. Political freedom and democracy go hand in hand.

II. Economic equality leads to real political freedom and democracy.

A	Only conclusion I follows
B	Only conclusion II follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Both I and II follow

Question 5 Explanation:

Nothing about first conclusion is stated in statement. Only II conclusion follows.

Question 6

Statement : Company X has a record of manufacturing cameras of quality and the latest design so that you do not spoil even a single shot irrespective of the weather conditions.

Conclusions :

I. No other company except X is reputed in camera industry.

II. Acceptable shot with camera of company X can be taken in any weather conditions.

A	Only conclusion I follows
B	Only conclusion II follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Both I and II follow

Question 6 Explanation:

Either I or II follows

Question 7

Statement : A man must be wise to be a good wrangler. Good wranglers are talkative and boring.

Conclusions :

I. All the wise persons are boring.

II. All the wise persons are wranglers.

A	Only conclusion I follows
B	Only conclusion II follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Both I and II follow

Question 7 Explanation:

Neither I nor II follows.

Question 8

Statement: A large majority of the work force in India is unorganised. Most of them earn either the minimum or uncertain wages while others are engaged in sundry jobs.

Conclusions:

I. The workers in the organised sector get better facilities and stay longer in their jobs.

II. Some workers in the unorganised sector of the work force have a regular and fixed income.

A	Only conclusion I follows
B	Only conclusion II follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Both I and II follow

Question 8 Explanation:

Conclusion I is not stated in the statement. Only Conclusion II follows.

Question 9

Statement: The national norm is 100 beds per thousand populations but in this state it is 150 beds per thousand.

Conclusions:

I. Our national norm is appropriate.

II. The state's health system is taking adequate care in this regard.

A	Only conclusion I follows
B	Only conclusion II follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Both I and II follow

Question 9 Explanation:

Nothing is stated in statement for I. Only conclusion II follows.

Question 10

Statement : The old order changed yielding place to new.

Conclusions:

I. Change is the law of nature.

II. Discard old ideas because they are old.

A	Only conclusion I follows
B	Only conclusion II follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Both I and II follow

Question 10 Explanation:

Clearly, I directly follows from the given statement.
Also, it is mentioned that old ideas are replaced by new ones, as thinking changes with the progressing time.
So, II does not follow.

Question 11

Statement : Modern man influences his destiny by the choice he makes unlike in the past.

Conclusions:

I. Earlier there were fewer options available to man.

II. There was no desire in the past to influence the destiny.

A	Only conclusion I follows
B	Only conclusion I follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Both I and II follow

Question 11 Explanation:

I directly follows from the statement while II cannot be deduced from it.

Question 12

Statement : People who speak too much against dowry are those who had taken it themselves.

Conclusions:

I. It is easier said than done.

II. People have double standards.

A	Only conclusion I follows
B	Only conclusion II follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Both I and II follow

Question 12 Explanation:

Both conclusions follow.

Question 13

Statement: Money plays a vital role in politics.

Conclusions:

I. The poor can never become politicians.

II. All the rich men take part in politics.

A	Only conclusion I follows
B	Only conclusion II follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Both I and II follow

Question 13 Explanation:

Neither the poor nor the rich, but only the role of money in politics is being talked about in the statement. So, neither I nor II follows.

Question 14

Statement: It is almost impossible to survive and prosper in this world without sacrificing ethics and morality

Conclusions:

I. World appreciates some concepts but may not uphold it.

II. Concept of ethics and morality are not practicable in life.

A	Only conclusion I follows
B	Only conclusion I follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Both I and II follow

Question 14 Explanation:

I is vague so I do not follow, but II is directly related to statement.

Question 15

Statement : The interview panel may select a candidate who neither possesses the desired qualification nor the values and attributes.

Conclusions :

I. The inclusion of specialists on the interview panel does not guarantee that the selection will be proper.

II. The interview test has certain limitations in the matter of selection of candidates.

A	Only conclusion I follows
B	Only conclusion II follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Both I and II follow

Question 15 Explanation:

Both follows

Question 16

Statement: In case of outstanding candidates, the condition of previous experience of social work may be waived by the admission committee for M.A. (Social Work).

Conclusions:

I. Some of the students for M.A. (social work) will have previous experience of social work.

II. Some of the students of M.A. (social work) will not have previous experience of social work.

A	Only conclusion I follows
B	Only conclusion II follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Both I and II follow

Question 16 Explanation:

Both Conclusions follows.

Question 17

Statement : Industrial Revolution which first of all started in Europe has brought about modern age.

Conclusions :

I. Disparity between rich and poor results in revolution.

II. Revolution overhauls society.

A	Only conclusion I follows
B	Only conclusion II follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Neither I nor II follows

Question 17 Explanation:

Cause of revolution can not be deduced from the statement.
Only Conclusion II follows, as It is mentioned that Industrial revolution brought about the modern age.

Question 18

Statement : Modern man influences his destiny by the choice he makes unlike in the past.

Conclusions :

I. Earlier there were less options available to man.

II. There was no desire in the past to influence the destiny.

A	Only conclusion I follows
B	Only conclusion II follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Neither I nor II follows

Question 18 Explanation:

Only I conclusion follows.

Question 19

Statement : Fortune favours the brave.

Conclusions :

I. Risks are necessary for success.

II. Cowards die many times before their death.

A	Only conclusion I follows
B	Only conclusion II follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Both I and II follow

Question 19 Explanation:

Only conclusion I follows.
Conclusion II can not be deduced from the statement.

Question 20

Statement: No country is absolutely self-dependent these days.

Conclusions:

I. It is impossible to grow and produce all that a country needs.

II. Countrymen in general have become lazy.

A	Only conclusion I follows
B	Only conclusion II follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Both I and II follow

Question 20 Explanation:

Clearly, only I provides a suitable explanation to the given statement.
So, only I follows.

Question 21

Statement: Fashion is a form of ugliness so intolerable that we have to alter it every six months.

Conclusions:

I. Fashion designers do not understand the public mind very well.

II. The public by and large is highly susceptible to novelty.

A	Only conclusion I follows
B	Only conclusion II follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Neither I nor II follows

Question 21 Explanation:

The statement asserts that people cannot stand any particular trend for long and seek change quite often.
So, only II follows.

Question 22

Statements: Quality has a price tag. India is allocating lots of funds to education.

Conclusions:

I. Quality of education in India would improve soon.

II. Funding alone can enhance quality of education.

A	Only conclusion I follows
B	Only conclusion I follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Both I and II follow

Question 22 Explanation:

According to the statement, funding is necessary to improve quality and India is allocating funds to education.
This means that quality of education will improve in India.
So, I follows. But funding alone is sufficient to enhance quality, is not true.
So, II does not follow.

Question 23

Statements: Although we have rating agencies like Crisil, ICRA, there is demand to have a separate rating agency for IT companies to protect investors.

Conclusions:

I. Assessment of financial worth of IT companies calls for separate set of skills, insight and competencies.

II. Now the investors investing in IT companies will get protection of their investment.

A	Only conclusion I follows
B	Only conclusion II follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Neither I nor II follows

Question 23 Explanation:

The need for separate rating agency for IT companies clearly indicates that such assessment requires a separate set of skills.
So, I follows. However, the statement indicates only the need or demand and neither the future course of action nor its after-effects can be judged. So, II does not follow.

Question 24

Statements: Fashion is a form of ugliness so intolerable that we have to alter it every six months.

Conclusions:

I. Fashion designers do not understand the public mind very well.

II. The public by and large is highly susceptible to novelty.

A	Only conclusion I follows
B	Only conclusion II follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Both I and II follow

Question 24 Explanation:

The statement asserts that people cannot stand any particular trend for long and seek change quite often.
So, only II follows.

Question 25

Statements: Until our country achieves economic equality, political freedom and democracy would be meaningless.

Conclusions:

I. Political freedom and democracy go hand in hand.

II. Economic equality leads to real political freedom and democracy.

A	Only conclusion I follows
B	Only conclusion II follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Both I and II follow

Question 25 Explanation:

Nothing about the relation between political freedom and democracy is mentioned in the statement.
So, I does not follow.
But II directly follows from the given statement.

Question 26

Statements: People who speak too much against dowry are those who had taken it themselves.

Conclusions:

I. It is easier said than done.

II. People have double standards.

A	Only conclusion I follows
B	Only conclusion II follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Both I and II follow

Question 26 Explanation:

The statement clearly implies that it is easier to say than to do something and what people say is different from what they do.
So, both I and II follow.

Question 27

Statements: The national norm is 100 beds per thousand populations but in this state, 150 beds per thousand are available in the hospitals.

Conclusions:

I. Our national norm is appropriate.

II. The state's health system is taking adequate care in this regard.

A	Only conclusion I follows
B	Only conclusion II follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Both I and II follow

Question 27 Explanation:

Whether the national norm is appropriate or not cannot be said. So, I does not follow.
However, more number of beds per thousand population are available in the state.
So, II follows.

Question 28

Statements: Our securities investments carry market risk. Consult your investment advisor or agent before investing.

Conclusions:

I. One should not invest in securities.

II. The investment advisor calculates the market risk with certainty.

A	Only conclusion I follows
B	Only conclusion II follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Both I and II follow

Question 28 Explanation:

Investment in securities involves risk.
This does not mean that one should not invest in securities.
So, I does not follow. Since the statement advises one to consult investment advisor before investing, so II follows.

Question 29

Statements: Money plays a vital role in politics.

Conclusions:

I. The poor can never become politicians.

II. All the rich men take part in politics.

A	Only conclusion I follows
B	Only conclusion II follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Neither I nor II follows

Question 29 Explanation:

Neither the poor nor the rich, but only the role of money in politics is being talked about in the statement.
So, neither I nor II follows.

Question 30

Statements: Vegetable prices are soaring in the market.

Conclusions:

I. Vegetables are becoming a rare commodity.

II. People cannot eat vegetables.

A	Only conclusion I follows
B	Only conclusion II follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Both I and II follow

Question 30 Explanation:

The availability of vegetables is not mentioned in the given statement.
So, I does not follow Also, II is not directly related to the statement and so it also does not follow.

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Statement and argument

MS — Sun, 03 Sep 2017 03:51:54 +0000

[vc_row][vc_column][vc_toggle title=”Explanation / Important formulas:” el_id=”1481454282462-60885454-0285″]

Explanation:

Each question given below consists of a statement, followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument.

Give answer:

(A) If only argument I is strong

(B) If only argument II is strong

(D) If neither I nor II is strong and

(E) If both I and II are strong.

[/vc_toggle][vc_toggle title=”Instructions to take Aptitude Test” el_id=”1481454372988-cd8f0f96-30f0″]

Click on start to start taking the test.
Click on the option (A, B, C or D) to figure out the right answer.
You can answer multiple times till you get the right answer.
Once you get the right answer, explanations (if any) for the same will be showcased down.
On click of list, you get to see total no of questions, no of questions you answered and no of questions pending to answer.
On click of question number you will go to that particular question.
On click of END your test will end.
On click of ‘Get Results’ you will get to see correct answer for each questions.
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Statement and Argument - Question and Answers

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Question 1

Statement: Should the railways immediately stop issuing free passes to all its employees?

Arguments:

I. No. The employees have the right to travel free.

II. Yes. This will help railways to provide better facility.

A	Only argument I is strong
B	Only argument II is strong
C	Either I or II is strong
D	Neither I nor II is strong
E	Both I and II are strong

Question 1 Explanation:

The free passes given to railway employees is a privilege for them, not their right.
So, argument I does not hold. Argument II seems to be vague.

Question 2

Statement : Should government stop spending huge amounts of money on international sports ?

Arguments :

I. Yes. This money can be utilised for poor.

II. No. Sports-persons will be frustrated and will not get international exposure.

A	Only argument I is strong
B	Only argument II is strong
C	Either I or II is strong
D	Neither I nor II is strong
E	Both I and II are strong

Question 2 Explanation:

Clearly spending money on sports can not be avoided merely for social economic problems.
But Argument II is strong. Be a sports man and then think on this question.

Question 3

Statement : Should education be made compulsory for all children up to the age of 14 ?

Arguments :

I. Yes. This will help to eradicate the system of forced employment of children.

II. Yes. This would increase the standard of living.

A	Only argument I is strong
B	Only argument II is strong
C	Either I or II is strong
D	Neither I nor II is strong
E	Both I and II are strong

Question 3 Explanation:

None of argument stands valid.

Question 4

Statement : Should the tuition fees in all post graduate courses be hiked considerably ?

Arguments :

I. Yes. This will bring some kind of seriousness among the students and will improve quality.

II. No. This will force the meritorious poor students to stay away from post-graduate courses.

A	Only argument I is strong
B	Only argument II is strong
C	Either I or II is strong
D	Neither I nor II is strong
E	Both I and II are strong

Question 4 Explanation:

Clearly seriousness among the students is not because of fees but second argument is strong.

Question 5

Statement: Should all Government owned educational institutions be handed over to private institutions ?

Arguments :

I. Yes. Standard of education will improve.

II. No. Standard of education will fall.

A	Only argument I is strong
B	Only argument II is strong
C	Either I or II is strong
D	Neither I nor II is strong
E	Both I and II are strong

Question 5 Explanation:

It is not that the government or the private institutions can provide higher standards of learning.

Question 6

Statement : Should new universities be established in India ?

Argument :

I. No. We have still not achieved the target of literacy.

II. No. We will have to face the problem of unemployed but highly qualified people.

A	Only argument I is strong
B	Only argument II is strong
C	Either I or II is strong
D	Neither I nor II is strong
E	Neither I nor II is strong

Question 6 Explanation:

Clearly, instead of improving upon higher education we should focus on increasing literacy rate first.
Also more degree holders with the number of jobs remaining same will increase unemployment.
So both arguments are strong.

Question 7

Statement : Should there be a ban on product advertising ?

Arguments :

I. No. It is an age of advertising. Unless your advertisement is better than your other competitors, the product will not be sold.

II. Yes. The money spent on advertising is very huge and it inflates the cost of the product.

A	Only argument I is strong
B	Only argument II is strong
C	Either I or II is strong
D	Neither I nor II is strong
E	Both I and II are strong

Question 7 Explanation:

Only Argument II is strong as Argument I will not stand because advertisement will be banned for other competitors too.

Question 8

Statement : Should school education be made free in India ?

Arguments :

I. Yes. This is the only way to improve the literacy rate in India.

II. No. It would add the already heavy burden on the exchequer.

A	Only argument I is strong
B	Only argument II is strong
C	Either I or II is strong
D	Neither I nor II is strong
E	Both I and II are strong

Question 8 Explanation:

Making education free can not ensure full literacy. So argument I is vague.
Argument II stands strong.

Question 9

Statement: Should government jobs in rural areas have more incentives ?

Arguments:

I. Yes. Incentives are essential for attracting government servants there.

II. No. Rural areas are already cheaper, healthier and less complex than big cities. So ? Why offer extra incentives.

A	Only argument I is strong
B	Only argument II is strong
C	Either I or II is strong
D	Either I or II is strong
E	Both I and II are strong

Question 9 Explanation:

Clearly, government jobs in rural areas are underlined with several difficulties.
In lieu of these, extra incentives are needed. So, only argument I holds strong.

Question 10

Statement: Should 'computer knowledge' be made a compulsory subject for all the students at secondary school level ?

Arguments:

I. No, our need is 'bread' for everyone, we cannot follow western models.

II. Yes. We cannot compete in the international market without equipping our children with computers.

A	Only argument I is strong
B	Only argument II is strong
C	Either I or II is strong
D	Neither I nor II is strong
E	Both I and II are strong

Question 10 Explanation:

Nowadays, computers have entered all walks of life and children need to be prepared for the same.
So, argument II is strong. Argument I holds no relevance.

Question 11

Statement: Should family planning be made compulsory in India?

Arguments:

I. Yes. Looking to the miserable conditions in India, there is no other go.

II. No. In India there are people of various religions and family planning is against the tenets of some of the religions.

A	Only argument I is strong
B	Only argument II is strong
C	Either I or II is strong
D	Neither I nor II is strong
E	Both I and II are strong

Question 11 Explanation:

Family planning is an essential step to curb population growth.
So, argument I holds strong. Also, family planning being against the tenets of some of the Indian religions, it is not necessary to make it compulsory.
Instead, it can be enforced by creating public awareness of the benefits of family planning.
So, argument II also holds.

Question 12

Statement: Should high chimneys be installed in industries ?

Arguments:

I. Yes. It reduces pollution at ground level.

II. No. It increases pollution in upper atmosphere.

A	Only argument I is strong
B	Only argument II is strong
C	Either I or II is strong
D	Neither I nor II is strong
E	Both I and II are strong

Question 12 Explanation:

Pollution at ground level is the most hazardous in the way of being injurious to human and animal life.
So, argument I alone holds.

Question 13

Statement: Are nuclear families better than joint families ?

Arguments:

I. No. Joint families ensure security and also reduce the burden of work.

II. Yes. Nuclear families ensure greater freedom.

A	Only argument I is strong
B	Only argument II is strong
C	Either I or II is strong
D	Neither I nor II is strong
E	Both I and II are strong

Question 13 Explanation:

Clearly, with so many people around in a joint family, there is more security. Also, work is shared.
So, argument I holds. In nuclear families, there are lesser number of people and so lesser responsibilities and more freedom.
Thus, II also holds.

Question 14

Statement: Should persons convicted of criminal offences in the past be allowed to contest elections in India ?

Arguments:

I. No. Such persons cannot serve the cause of the people and country.

II. Yes. It is democracy - let people decide whom to vote.

A	Only argument I is strong
B	Only argument II is strong
C	Either I or II is strong
D	Neither I nor II is strong
E	Both I and II are strong

Question 14 Explanation:

Clearly, persons with criminal background cannot stand to serve as the representatives of the common people.
So, they should not be allowed to contest elections. Thus, only argument I holds, while II does not.

Question 15

Statement: Should the political parties be banned?

Arguments:

I. Yes. It is necessary to teach a lesson to the politicians.

II. No. It will lead to an end of democracy.

A	Only argument I is strong
B	Only argument II is strong
C	Either I or II is strong
D	Neither I nor II is strong
E	Both I and II are strong

Question 15 Explanation:

Clearly, with the ban on political parties, candidates can independently contest elections.
So, it will not end democracy. Thus, argument II does not hold. Argument I does not give a strong reason

Question 16

Statement: Should taxes on colour television be further increased ?

Arguments:

I. Yes, Colour television is a luxury item and only rich people buy them.

II. No, Televisions are bought by the poor too.

A	Only argument I is strong
B	Only argument II is strong
C	Either I or II is strong
D	Neither I nor II is strong
E	Both I and II are strong

Question 16 Explanation:

Clearly, taxes on an item cannot be increased or decreased on the basis of the financial position of the people who buy it.
So, both arguments I and II do not hold strong.

Question 17

Statement: Is the Government justified in spending so much on defence ?

Arguments:

I. Yes. Safety of the country is of prime importance.

II. No. During peace, this money could be used for the development of the country.

A	Only argument I is strong
B	Only argument II is strong
C	Either I or II is strong
D	Neither I nor II is strong
E	Neither I nor II is strong

Question 17 Explanation:

Clearly, defence is necessary for the safety of the country, which is of prime importance.
So, argument I holds. Also, a country can concentrate on internal progress and development only when it is safe from external aggressions.
So, argument II does not hold.

Question 18

Statement: Should public holidays be declared on demise of important national leaders?

Arguments:

I. No. Such unscheduled holidays hamper national progress.

II. Yes. People would like to pay their homage to the departed soul.

A	Only argument I is strong
B	Only argument I is strong
C	Either I or II is strong
D	Neither I nor II is strong
E	Both I and II are strong

Question 18 Explanation:

Clearly, unscheduled and untimely holidays would naturally cause the work to suffer.
So, argument I holds strong. Also, a holiday is not necessary to pay homage to someone.
So, argument II is vague.

Question 19

Statement : Should we scrap the system of formal education beyond graduation ?

Arguments :

I. Yes. It will mean taking employment at an early date.

II. No. It mean lack of depth of knowledge.

A	Only argument I is strong
B	Only argument II is strong
C	Either I or II is strong
D	Neither I nor II is strong
E	Both I and II are strong

Question 19 Explanation:

Only argument II is strong.

Question 20

Statement: Should children be legally made responsible to take care of their parents during their old age ?

Arguments:

I. Yes. Such matter can only be solved by legal means.

II. Yes. Only this will bring some relief to poor parents.

A	Only argument I is strong
B	Only argument II is strong
C	Either I or II is strong
D	Neither I nor II is strong
E	Both I and II are strong

Question 20 Explanation:

Taking care of the parents is a moral duty of the children and cannot be thrust upon them legally, nor such a compulsion can ensure good care of the old people.
So, none of the arguments holds strong.

Question 21

Statement: Should there be reservation in Government jobs for candidates from single child family ?

Arguments:

I. No. This is not advisable as the jobs should be offered to only deserving candidates without any reservation for a particular group.

II. Yes. This will help reduce the growing population in India as the parents will be encouraged to adopt single child norm.

A	Only argument I is strong
B	Only argument II is strong
C	Either I or II is strong
D	Neither I nor II is strong
E	Both I and II are strong

Question 21 Explanation:

The Government has already made provisions for reservation of jobs for the economically backward sections, which is a must.
So, abolishing the practice of reservation altogether has no meaning. Thus, argument I is vague. Also, more reservations would lead to non-recruitment of many more deserving candidates.
Besides, such a reservation, if implemented, will cater to the job requirements of only a small section of population and not a major part of it.
So, argument II also does not hold strong.

Question 22

Statement: Should higher education be completely stopped for some time ?

Arguments:

I. No. It will hamper the country's future progress.

II. Yes. It will reduce the educated unemployment.

A	Only argument I is strong
B	Only argument II is strong
C	Either I or II is strong
D	Neither I nor II is strong
E	Both I and II are strong

Question 22 Explanation:

Clearly, higher education is not the cause of unemployment. In fact, it has created greater job opportunities.
So, argument II is vague. Also, higher education promotes the country's development.
So, argument I holds.

Question 23

Statement: Should we scrap the 'Public Distribution System' in India ?

Arguments:

I. Yes, Protectionism is over, everyone must get the bread on his/her own.

II. Yes. The poor do not get any benefit because of corruption.

A	Only argument I is strong
B	Only argument II is strong
C	Either I or II is strong
D	Neither I nor II is strong
E	Neither I nor II is strong

Question 23 Explanation:

The Public Distribution System is indeed necessary to provide basic amenities to the economically backward sections of population.
So, argument I is vague. Also, if the Objectives of a system are not fulfilled because of corruption, then getting rid of the system is no solution. Instead,
efforts should be made to end corruption and extend its benefits to the people for whom it is meant.
So, argument II also does not hold,

Question 24

Statement: Should India have no military force at all ?

Arguments:

I. No. Other countries in the world do not believe in non-violence.

II. Yes. Many Indians believe in non-violence.

A	Only argument I is strong
B	Only argument II is strong
C	Either I or II is strong
D	Neither I nor II is strong
E	Both I and II are strong

Question 24 Explanation:

Clearly, India needs to have military force to defend itself against the threat of other military powers in the world.
So, none of the arguments holds strong.

Question 25

Statement: Should there be uniforms for students in the colleges in India as in the schools ?

Arguments:

I. Yes, this will improve the ambience of the colleges as all the students will be decently dressed.

II. No. The college students should not be regimented and they should be left to choose their clothes for coming to the college.

A	Only argument I is strong
B	Only argument II is strong
C	Either I or II is strong
D	Neither I nor II is strong
E	Both I and II are strong

Question 25 Explanation:

Clearly, after being in strict discipline and following a formal dress code of the school for so many years,
The students must be granted some liberty in college life, as they have to take on the responsibilities of life, next.
Besides, schools adopt uniforms to take care of the security of the child - an aspect which doesn't matter much in the colleges.
So, argument II holds strong. Also, the environment of the college depends on the students' dedication and etiquettes and not on their uniforms.
So, argument I is vague.

Question 26

Statement: Should India engage into a dialogue with neighbouring countries to stop cross border tension ?

Arguments:

I. Yes. This is the only way to reduce the cross border terrorism and stop loss of innocent lives.

II. No. Neighbouring countries cannot be relied upon in such matters, they may still engage in subversive activities.

A	Only argument I is strong
B	Only argument II is strong
C	Either I or II is strong
D	Neither I nor II is strong
E	Both I and II are strong

Question 26 Explanation:

Clearly, peaceful settlement through mutual agreement is the best option, whatever be the issue.
So, argument I holds strong. Moreover, the problem indicated in II can be curbed by constant check and vigilance.
So, II seems to be vague.

Question 27

Statement: Should there be a world government ?

Arguments:

I. It will help in eliminating tensions among the nations.

II. No. Then, only the developed countries will dominate in the government.

A	Only argument I is strong
B	Only argument II is strong
C	Either I or II is strong
D	Neither I nor II is strong
E	Both I and II are strong

Question 27 Explanation:

Clearly, a world government cannot eliminate tensions among nations because it will also have the ruling group and the opposition group.
Further, the more powerful and diplomatic shall rule the world to their interests. So, only argument II holds.

Question 28

Statement: Should the practice of transfers of clerical cadre employees from government offices of one city to those of another be stopped ?

Arguments:

I. No. Transfer of employees is a routine administrative matter and we must continue it.

II. Yes. It involves lot of governmental expenditure and inconvenience too many compared to the benefits it yields.

A	Only argument I is strong
B	Only argument I is strong
C	Either I or II is strong
D	Neither I nor II is strong
E	Both I and II are strong

Question 28 Explanation:

It is not necessary that any practice which has been in vogue for a long time is right and it must be continued.
So, argument I is not strong. Also, a practice must be continued or discontinued in view of its merits/demerits and not on grounds of the expenditure or procedures it entails.
The policy of transfer is generally practised to do away with corruption, which is absolutely essential.
So, argument II also does not hold.

Question 29

Statement: Is paying ransom or agreeing to the conditions of kidnappers of political figures, a proper course of action ?

Arguments:

I. Yes. The victims must be saved at all cost.

II. No. It encourages the kidnappers to continue their sinister activities.

A	Only argument I is strong
B	Only argument II is strong
C	Either I or II is strong
D	Neither I nor II is strong
E	Both I and II are strong

Question 29 Explanation:

Both the arguments are strong enough.
The conditions have to be agreed to, in order to save the life of the victims, though actually they ought not to be agreed to, as they encourage the sinister activities of the kidnappers

Question 30

Statement: Should foreign films be banned in India ?

Arguments:

I. Yes. They depict an alien culture which adversely affects our values.

II. No. Foreign films are of a high artistic standard.

A	Only argument I is strong
B	Only argument II is strong
C	Either I or II is strong
D	Neither I nor II is strong
E	Both I and II are strong

Question 30 Explanation:

Clearly, foreign films depict the alien culture but this only helps in learning more.
So, argument I does not hold. Also, the reason stated in argument II is not strong enough in contradicting the ban.
So, it also does not hold.

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Series Completion

MS — Sat, 02 Sep 2017 04:52:18 +0000

[vc_row][vc_column][vc_toggle title=”Explanation / Important formulas:” el_id=”1481454282462-60885454-0285″]

Series completion section deals with questions in which series of numbers are given, which are generally called as terms of the series. These terms follow a certain pattern throughout.
The candidate is required to recognize this pattern and either complete the given series with the most suitable alternative or find wrong in the series.

Number series tests present numerical sequences that follow a logical rule which is based on elementary arithmetic.
The difficulty level of these questions can increase in two ways; first, the logic behind the sequence becomes less trivial and demands attention and creativity; second, the missing number can be positioned at an early stage, thus preventing you from deciphering the hidden rule by looking only at the previous numbers in the sequence.

[/vc_toggle][vc_toggle title=”Instructions to take Aptitude Test” el_id=”1481454372988-cd8f0f96-30f0″]

Click on start to start taking the test.
Click on the option (A, B, C or D) to figure out the right answer.
You can answer multiple times till you get the right answer.
Once you get the right answer, explanations (if any) for the same will be showcased down.
On click of list, you get to see total no of questions, no of questions you answered and no of questions pending to answer.
On click of question number you will go to that particular question.
On click of END your test will end.
On click of ‘Get Results’ you will get to see correct answer for each questions.

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Series Completion - Question and Answers

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Your answers are highlighted below.

Question 1

120, 99, 80, 63, 48, ?

A	35
B	38
C	39
D	40

Question 1 Explanation:

The pattern is - 21, - 19, - 17, - 15,.....
So, missing term = 48 - 13 = 35.

Question 2

589654237, 89654237, 8965423, 965423, ?

A	58965
B	65423
C	89654
D	96542

Question 2 Explanation:

The digits are removed one by one from the beginning and the end in order alternately. So as to obtain the subsequent terms of the series.

Question 3

3, 10, 101,?

A	10101
B	10201
C	10202
D	11012

Question 3 Explanation:

Each term in the series is obtained by adding 1 to the square of the preceding term.
So, missing term = 101² + 1 = 10202.

Question 4

In the series 2, 6, 18, 54, ...... what will be the 8th term ?

A	4370
B	4374
C	7443
D	7434

Question 4 Explanation:

Clearly, 2 x 3 = 6, 6 x 3 = 18, 18 x 3 = 54,....
. So, the series is a G.P. in which a = 2, r = 3.
Therefore 8th term = ar8-1 = ar7 = 2 x 37 = (2 x 2187) = 4374.

Question 5

125,80,45,20,?

A	5
B	8
C	10
D	12

Question 5 Explanation:

The pattern is - 45, - 35, - 25, .....
So, missing term = 20 - 15 = 5.

Question 6

1, 2, 3, 6, 9, 18, ?, 54

A	18
B	27
C	36
D	81

Question 6 Explanation:

The pattern is x 2, x 3/2, x 2, x 3/2, x 2,.....
So, missing term = 18 x 3/2 = 27.

Question 7

6, 13, 25, 51, 101, ?

A	201
B	202
C	203
D	205

Question 7 Explanation:

The pattern is x 2 + 1, x 2 - 1, x 2 + 1, x 2 - 1,.....
So, missing term = 101 x 2 + 1 = 203.

Question 8

5,6,9, 15, ?, 40

A	21
B	25
C	27
D	33

Question 8 Explanation:

The pattern is + 1, + 3, + 6,....., i.e. + 1, + (1, + 2), + (1 + 2 + 3),.....
So, missing term = 15 + (1 + 2 + 3 + 4) = 25.

Question 9

1, 3, 4, 8, 15, 27, ?

A	37
B	44
C	50
D	55

Question 9 Explanation:

The sum of any three consecutive terms of the series gives the next term.
So, missing number = 8 + 15 + 27 = 50.

Question 10

3, 4, 7, 7, 13, 13, 21, 22, 31, 34, ?

A	42
B	43
C	52
D	53

Question 10 Explanation:

The given sequence is a combination of two series :
I. 3, 7, 13, 21, 31, ? and II. 4, 7, 13, 22, 34
The pattern in I is + 4, + 6, + 8, + 10,.....
The pattern in II is + 3, + 6, + 9, + 12,.....
So, missing term = 31 + 12 = 43.

Question 11

198, 194, 185, 169, ?

A	92
B	112
C	136
D	144

Question 11 Explanation:

The pattern is - 4, - 9, - 16,.....i.e. - 22, - 32, - 42,.....
So, missing pattern = 169 - 52 = 169 - 25 = 144.

Question 12

6, 12, 21, ?, 48

A	33
B	38
C	40
D	45

Question 12 Explanation:

The pattern is + 6, + 9, + 12, + 15, .....
So, missing term = 21 + 12 = 33.

Question 13

Which term of the series 5, 10, 20, 40, ..... is 1280?

A	10th
B	9th
C	8th
D	None of these

Question 13 Explanation:

Clearly, 5 x 2 = 10, 10 x 2 = 20, 20 x 2 = 40,.....
So, the series is a G.P. in which a = 5 and r = 2.
Let 1280 be the rath term of the series.
Then, 5x2n-1 = 1280 2n-1 = 256 = 28 n - 1 = 8 n = 9.

Question 14

2, 5, 9, ?, 20, 27

A	14
B	16
C	18
D	24

Question 14 Explanation:

The pattern is + 3, + 4, + 5, + 6,.....
So, missing term = 9 + 5 = 14.

Question 15

2, 3, 3, 5, 10, 13, ?, 43, 172, 177

A	23
B	38
C	39
D	40

Question 15 Explanation:

The pattern is + 1, x 1, + 2, x 2, + 3, x 3, + 4, x 4, + 5.
So, missing term = 13 x 3 = 39.

Question 16

9, 27, 31, 155, 161, 1127, ?

A	316
B	1135
C	1288
D	2254

Question 16 Explanation:

The pattern is x 3, + 4, x 5, + 6, x 7,.....
So, missing term = 1127 + 8 = 1135.

Question 17

2, 1, 2, 4, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 8, 10, 11, ?

A	9
B	10
C	11
D	12

Question 17 Explanation:

The given sequence is a combination of three series : I. 1st, 4th, 7th, 10th, 13th terms i.e. 2, 4, 6, 8, ? II. 2nd, 5th, 8th, 11th terms i.e. 1, 4, 7, 10
III. 3rd, 6th, 9th, 12th terms i.e. 2, 5, 8, 11
Clearly, I consists of consecutive even numbers. So, the missing term is 10.

Question 18

Which of the following will not be a number of the series 1, 8, 27, 64, 125,.....?

A	256
B	512
C	729
D	1000

Question 18 Explanation:

The given series consists of cubes of natural numbers only. 256 is not the cube of any natural number.

Question 19

13, 32, 24, 43, 35, ?, 46, 65, 57, 76

A	45
B	52
C	54
D	55

Question 19 Explanation:

The given sequence is a combination of two series:
I. 13, 24, 35, 46, 57 and II. 32, 43, ?, 65, 76
The pattern in both I and II is + 11. So, missing term = 43 + 11 = 54.

Question 20

3, 15, ?, 63, 99, 143

A	27
B	35
C	45
D	56

Question 20 Explanation:

The terms of the given series are (22 - 1), (42 - 1),....., (82 - 1), (102 - 1), (122 - 1).
So, missing term = (62 - 1) - (36 - 1) = 35.

Question 21

90, 180, 12, 50, 100, 200, ?, 3, 50, 4, 25, 2, 6, 30, 3

A	150
B	175
C	225
D	250

Question 21 Explanation:

Clearly, 90 = 30 x 3, 180 = 6 x 30, 12 = 2 x 6, 50 = 25 x 2, 100 = 4 x 25, 200 = 50 x 4.
So, missing term = 3 x 50 = 150.

Question 22

48, 24, 96, 48, 192, ?

A	76
B	90
C	96
D	98

Question 22 Explanation:

The pattern is Ã· 2, x 4, Ã· 2, x 4, .....
So, missing term = 192 Ã· 2 = 96.

Question 23

2,15,41,80,?

A	111
B	120
C	121
D	132

Question 23 Explanation:

The pattern is + 13, + 26, + 39,.....
So, missing term = 80 + 52 = 132.

Question 24

6, 11, 21, 36, 56, ?

A	42
B	51
C	81
D	91

Question 24 Explanation:

The pattern is + 5, + 10, + 15, + 20, ...
So, missing term = 56 + 25 = 81.

Question 25

563, 647, 479, 815, ?

A	672
B	386
C	279
D	143

Question 25 Explanation:

The pattern is + 84, - 168, + 336,.....i.e. + 84, - (84 x 2), + (84 x 22), .....
So, missing term = 815 - (84 x 23) = 815 - 672 = 143.

Question 26

13, 35, 57, 79, 911, ?

A	1110
B	1112
C	1113
D	1315

Question 26 Explanation:

The terms of the given series are numbers formed by joining together consecutive
odd numbers in order i.e. 1 and 3, 3 and 5, 5 and 7, 7 and 9, 9 and 11, .....
So, missing term = number formed by joining 11 and 13 = 1113.

Question 27

1, 4, 10, 22, 46, ?

A	64
B	86
C	94
D	122

Question 27 Explanation:

The pattern is + 3, + 6, + 12, + 24,.....
So, missing term = 46 + 48 = 94.

Question 28

66, 36, 18, ?

A	3
B	6
C	8
D	9

Question 28 Explanation:

Each term in the series is the product of the digits of the preceding term.
So, missing term = 1 x 8 = 8.

Question 29

In the series 3, 9, 15, ...... what will be the 21st term?.

A	117
B	121
C	123
D	129

Question 29 Explanation:

Clearly, 3 + 6 = 9, 9 + 6 = 15,.....
So, the series is an A.P. in which a = 3 and d = 6.
Therefore 21st term = a + (21 - 1) d = a + 20d = 3 + 20 x 6 = 123.

Question 30

28, 33, 31, 36, ?, 39

A	32
B	34
C	38
D	40

Question 30 Explanation:

The pattern is + 5, - 2, + 5, - 2,.....
So, missing term = 36 - 2 = 34.

Question 31

1, 9, 25, 49, ?, 121

A	64
B	81
C	91
D	100

Question 31 Explanation:

The given series consists of squares of consecutive odd numbers
i.e. 12, 32, 52, 72,.....
So, missing term = 92 = 81.

Question 32

2,2,5, 13,28,?

A	49
B	50
C	51
D	52

Question 32 Explanation:

The pattern is + 0, + 3, + 8, + 15, ..... i.e. + (l2 - 1), + (22 - 1), + (32 - 1), + (42 - 1), .....
So, missing term = 28 + (52 - 1) = 28 + 24 = 52.

Question 33

0, 2, 8, 14, ?, 34

A	20
B	23
C	24
D	25

Question 33 Explanation:

The pattern is + 2, + 6, + 6, + 10, + 10,.....
So, missing term = 14 + 10 = 24.

Question 34

In the series 10, 17, 24, 31, 38,.....which of the following will be a number of the series ?

A	48
B	346
C	574
D	1003

Question 34 Explanation:

The given series consists of numbers each of which, on dividing by 7, leaves a remainder 3. No other number except 346 satisfies the property.

Question 35

240, ?, 120, 40, 10, 2

A	180
B	240
C	420
D	480

Question 35 Explanation:

The pattern is ÷ 1, ÷ 2, ÷ 3, ÷ 4, ÷ 5.
So, missing term = 240 ÷ 1 = 240

Question 36

2,3,8,27, 112,?

A	226
B	339
C	452
D	565

Question 36 Explanation:

The pattern is x 1 + 1, x 2 + 2, x 3 + 3, x 4 + 4,.....
So, missing term = 112 x 5 + 5 = 565.

Question 37

6, 17, 39, 72, ?

A	83
B	94
C	116
D	127

Question 37 Explanation:

The pattern is + 11, + 22, + 33, .....
So, missing term = 72 + 44 = 116.

Question 38

20, 20, 19, 16, 17, 13, 14, 11, ?, ?

A	10, 10
B	10, 11
C	13, 14
D	13, 16

Question 38 Explanation:

Let the missing terms of the series be x1 and x2.
Thus, the sequence 20, 20, 19, 16, 17, 13, 14, 11, xv x2 is a combination of two series :
I. 20, 19, 17, 14, x1 and II. 20, 16, 13, 11, x2
The pattern in I is - 1, - 2, - 3,......So, missing term, x1 = 14 - 4 = 10.
The pattern in II is - 4, - 3, - 2,......So, missing term, x2 = 11 - 1 = 10.

Question 39

10, 100, 200, 310, ?

A	400
B	410
C	420
D	430

Question 39 Explanation:

The pattern is + 90 + 100, + 110,.....
So, missing term = 310 + 120 = 430.

Question 40

11, 10, ?, 100, 1001, 1000, 10001

A	101
B	110
C	111
D	None of these

Question 40 Explanation:

The pattern is - 1, x 10 + 1, - 1, x 10 + 1, - 1, x 10 + 1, .....
So, missing term = 10 x 10 + 1 = 101.

Question 41

2, 7, 27, 107, 427, ?

A	1262
B	1707
C	4027
D	4207

Question 41 Explanation:

The pattern is + 5, + 20, + 80, + 320, ...... i.e. + (5 x 12), + (5 x 22), + (5 x 42), + (5 x 82),.....
So, missing term = 427 + (5 x 162) = 427 + 1280 = 1707.

Question 42

Complete the series 2,2,5, 13,28,...

A	50
B	51
C	52
D	53

Question 42 Explanation:

+1^2-1, +2^2-1, +3^2-1,+4^2-1
5^2-1 = 28 + 24
= 52

Question 43

Which number would replace the question mark in series 7,12,19,?,39

A	24
B	28
C	31
D	33

Question 43 Explanation:

Pattern is , +5, +7, +9
Missing Number = 19+9 = 28

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Seating Arrangements

admin — Fri, 01 Sep 2017 06:23:48 +0000

[vc_row][vc_column][vc_toggle title=”Explanation/ Important formulas:” el_id=”1481454282462-60885454-0285″]

Explanation:

In this type of questions, some clues regarding seating or placing (linear/circular) of some persons or items is given. The candidate is required to form the paper sequence using these
clues and answer the questions accordingly.
It depends on arrangements of people or objects in circular or straight line or different shapes. Below are the key points for solving seating arrangement questions.

Instruction:

Need to understand the given data and visualize the shape of arrangement.
Capture the clues from the given data in the correct order.
Draw the dummy diagram which contains given data for your reference.
Read the questions one by one and check the diagram which is having correct arrangement or not

[/vc_toggle][vc_toggle title=”Instructions to take Aptitude Test” el_id=”1481454372988-cd8f0f96-30f0″]

Click on start to start taking the test.
Click on the option (A, B, C or D) to figure out the right answer.
You can answer multiple times till you get the right answer.
Once you get the right answer, explanations (if any) for the same will be showcased down.
On click of list, you get to see total no of questions, no of questions you answered and no of questions pending to answer.
On click of question number you will go to that particular question.
On click of END your test will end.
On click of ‘Get Results’ you will get to see correct answer for each questions.
[/vc_toggle][vc_toggle title=” Seating Arrangements – Test” el_id=”1481454458410-9a4a39ac-c8b7″]

Seating Arrangements - Question and Answers

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Question 1

Four girls are sitting on a bench to be photographed. Shikha is to the left of Reena. Manju is to the right of Reena. Rita is between Reena and Manju. Who would be second from the left in the photograph?

A	Reena
B	Shikha
C	Manju
D	Rita

Question 1 Explanation:

Shikha is to the left of Reena and Manju is to her right.
Rita is between Reena and Manju.
So the order is Shikha ,
Reena , Rita and Manju. In the photograph Rita will be second from left.

Question 2

There are five different houses, A to E in a row. A is to the right of B and E is to the left of C and right of A. B is to the right of D. Which of the houses is in the middle?

A	A
B	B
C	D
D	E

Question 2 Explanation:

B is to the right of D. A is to the right of B. E is to the right of A and left of C.
So the order is D, B, A, E, C. Clearly A is in the middle.

Question 3

In a march past, seven persons are standing in a row. Q is standing left to R but right to P. O is standing right to N and left to P. Similarly, S is standing right to R and left to T. Find out who is standing in middle?

A	P
B	Q
C	R
D	O

Question 3 Explanation:

Q is left to R and to the right of P i,e P, Q, R.
O is to the right of N and left of P i,e N, O, P.
S is to the right of R and left of T i,e R, S, T.
Clearly, Q is in the middle.

Question 4

Five children are sitting in a row. S is sitting next to P but not T. is sitting next to R who is sitting on extreme left and T is not sitting next to K. Who are sitting adjacent to S?

A	K and P
B	R and P
C	only C
D	P and T

Question 4 Explanation:

S is sitting next to P. So, the order S, P or P, S is followed. Is sitting next to R. So, the order R, K is followed because R is on the extreme left. T is not next to P or K.
So, the arrangement will be R, K, P, S, T. Clearly, P and T are sitting adjacent to S.

Question 5

Five girls are sitting in a row , Rashi is not adjacent to Sulekha or Abha.Anuradha is not adjacent to Sulekha. Rashi is adjacent to Monika. Monika is at the middle in the row. Then, Anuradha is adjacent to whom out of the following?

A	Rashi
B	Sulekha
C	Abha
D	Monika

Question 5 Explanation:

Clearly, the order is Anuradha, Rashi, Monika, Abha. Anuradha is adjacent to Rashi

Question 6

Who is at the extreme left end?

Read the following information carefully and answer the question given above

There are five friends
They are standing in a row facing south.
Jayesh is to the immediate right to Alok.
Pramod is between Bhagat and Subodh.
Subodh is between Jayesh and Pramod.

A	Alok
B	Bhagat
C	Subodh
D	Data Inadequate

Question 6 Explanation:

The boys are standing facing south. So, consider left and right accordingly.
Jayesh is to the right of Alok i,e Jayesh, Alok.
Pramod is between Bhagat and Subodh i,e Bhagat, Pramod, Subodh
Subodh is between Jayesh and Pramod.
So, the sequence is Bhagat Pramod Subodh Jayesh Alok
Answer for this question is (a), Alok is at extreme left end

Question 7

Who is in the middle?

Read the following information carefully and answer the question given above

There are five friends
They are standing in a row facing south.
Jayesh is to the immediate right to Alok.
Pramod is between Bhagat and Subodh.
Subodh is between Jayesh and Pramod

A	Bhagat
B	Jayesh
C	Pramod
D	Subodh

Question 7 Explanation:

Question 8

In the Olympic games, the flags of six nations were flown on the masts in the following way:

The flag of America was to the left of Indian tricolour and to the right of the flag of France. The flag of Australia was on the right of the Indian flag but was to the left of the flag of Japan, which was to the left of the flag of China Find the two flags which ate in the center.

A	India and Australia
B	America and India
C	Japan and Australia
D	America and Australia

Question 8 Explanation:

The correct sequence is France, America, India, Australia, Japan, China.
The two flags in the center are India and Australia

Question 9

Mr A , Miss B, Mr C and Miss D are sitting around a table and discussing their trades. (1)Mr A sits opposite to cook. (2)Miss B sits right to the barber. (3)The washer man is on the left of the tailor. (4)Miss D sits opposite to Mr C. What are the trades of A and B?

A	Tailor and Barber
B	Tailor and Cook
C	Barber and Cook
D	Washer man and Cook.

Question 9 Explanation:

C and D sit opposite to each other .So if A sits opposite to cook, B shall be cook.
Now B is to the right of barber. So, one of the rest say C will be barber, then D on the opposite side shall be washer man or tailor. But washer man is left of tailor and D is to the left of A. So, D is washer man and A is tailor. Thus , A and B are Tailor and Cook.

Question 10

Five children were administrated psychological tests to know their intellectual levels. In the report, psychologists pointed out that the child A is less intelligent than the child B. The child C is less intelligent than the child D. The child B is less intelligent than the child C and child A is more intelligent than child E. Which child is most intelligent?

A	A
B	B
C	D
D	E

Question 10 Explanation:

Answer is (c), we have A < B, C < D, B < C and E < A.
So, the sequence becomes: E < A < B < C < D.
Clearly, child D is most intelligent

Question 11

In an examination, Raj got more marks than Mukesh but not as many as Priya. Priya got more marks than Dinesh and Kamal. Dinesh got less marks than Mukesh but his marks are not the lowest in the group. Who is the second in the descending order of marks?

A	Priya
B	Kamal
C	Raj
D	Cannot be determine

Question 11 Explanation:

In terms of marks obtained
Mukesh < Raj, Raj < Priya, Dinesh < Priya, Kamal < Priya, Dinesh Since Dinesh mars are not the lowest, so Kamal's marks are the lowest.
So, the sequence becomes: Kamal < Dinesh < Mukesh < Raj < Priya.
Clearly, in the descending order, Raj comes second.

Question 12

Which one is sitting opposite to P?

Six friends P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting around the hexagonal table each at one corner and are facing the centre of the hexagonal. P is second to the left of U. Q is neighbour of R and S. T is second to the left of S.

A	R
B	Q
C	T
D	S

Question 12 Explanation:

S is sitting opposite to P.

Question 13

Who is the fourth person to the left of Q ?

A	P
B	U
C	R
D	Data inadequate

Question 13 Explanation:

P is the fourth person to the left of Q

Question 14

Which of the following are the neighbours of P ?

A	U and P
B	T and R
C	U and R
D	Data inadequate

Question 14 Explanation:

T and R are the neighbours of P.

Question 15

Which one is sitting opposite to T ?

A	R
B	Q Hint: Q
C	Cannot determined
D	S

Question 15 Explanation:

Q is sitting opposite to T.

Question 16

By the below scenario Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

F sits second to right of the representative from Canara Bank. Representative from Bank of India is an immediate neighbour of the representative from Canara Bank.
Two people sit between the representative of Bank of India and B. C and E are Immediate neighbours of each other.
Neither C nor E is an immediate neighbour of either B or the representative from Canara Bank.
Representative from Bank of Maharashtra sits second to right of D. D is nether the representative of Canara Bank nor Bank of India.
G and the representative from UCO Bank are immediate neighbours of each other.
B is not the representative of UCO Bank. Only one person sits between C and the representative from Oriental Bank of Commerce.
H sits third to left of the representative from Punjab National Bank sits second to left of the representative from Syndicate Bank

A	H - UCO Bank
B	A - Canara Bank
C	D - Bank of Maharashtra
D	E - Syndicate Bank

Question 16 Explanation:

Except in A - Canara Bank pair, in al others the first person is second to the left of the second person

Question 17

According to the below scenario which of the following is true with respect to the given seating arrangement?

F sits second to right of the representative from Canara Bank. Representative from Bank of India is an immediate neighbour of the representative from Canara Bank.
Two people sit between the representative of Bank of India and B. C and E are Immediate neighbours of each other.
Neither C nor E is an immediate neighbour of either B or the representative from Canara Bank.
Representative from Bank of Maharashtra sitssecond to right of D. D is nether the representative of Canara Bank nor Bank of India.
G and the representative from UCO Bank are immediate neighbours of each other.
B is not the representative of UCO Bank. Only one person sits between C and the representative from Oriental Bank of Commerce.
H sits third to left of the representative from Punjab National Bank sits second to left of the representative from Syndicate Bank

A	B is the representative from Bank of Maharashtra
B	C sits second to right of H
C	The representative from Dena Bank sits to the immediate left of the representative from UCO Bank
D	The representatives from Bank of Maharashtra and Syndicate Bank are Immediate neighbours of each other

Question 17 Explanation:

B is the representative from Syndicate Bank.
C sits third to the right of H.
The representative from the Dena Bank, C is to the immediate right of the representative from the UCO Bank, F.
A is second to the left of G, the representative from Bank of India.
A, the representative from Bank of Maharashtra and B, the representative from Syndicate Bank are immediate neighbours of each other.

Question 18

Who amongst the following ait exactly between B and the representative from Bank of India?

F sits second to right of the representative from Canara Bank. Representative from Bank of India is an immediate neighbour of the representative from Canara Bank.
Two people sit between the representative of Bank of India and B. C and E are Immediate neighbours of each other.
Neither C nor E is an immediate neighbour of either B or the representative from Canara Bank.
Representative from Bank of Maharashtra sits second to right of D. D is nether the representative of Canara Bank nor Bank of India.
G and the representative from UCO Bank are immediate neighbours of each other.
B is not the representative of UCO Bank. Only one person sits between C and the representative from Oriental Bank of Commerce.
H sits third to left of the representative from Punjab National Bank sits second to left of the representative from Syndicate Bank

A	A and the representative from UCO Bank
B	F and G
C	H and the representative from Bank of Maharashtra
D	H and G

Question 18 Explanation:

H, the representative from Canara bank and A, the representative from Bank of Mahatashtra, sit between B, the representative from Syndicate Bank and G, the representative from Bank of India

Question 19

Who amongst the following is the representative from Oriental Bank of Commerce?

F sits second to right of the representative from Canara Bank. Representative from Bank of India is an immediate neighbour of the representative from Canara Bank.
Two people sit between the representative of Bank of India and B. C and E are Immediate neighbours of each other.
Neither C nor E is an immediate neighbour of either B or the representative from Canara Bank.
Representative from Bank of Maharashtra sits second to right of D. D is nether the representative of Canara Bank nor Bank of India.
G and the representative from UCO Bank are immediate neighbours of each other.
B is not the representative of UCO Bank. Only one person sits between C and the representative from Oriental Bank of Commerce.
H sits third to left of the representative from Punjab National Bank sits second to left of the representative from Syndicate Bank

A	A
B	D
C	H
D	C

Question 19 Explanation:

D is the representative from Oriental Bank from Commerce.

Question 20

Who amongst the following sits second to left of B?

F sits second to right of the representative from Canara Bank. Representative from Bank of India is an immediate neighbour of the representative from Canara Bank.
Two people sit between the representative of Bank of India and B. C and E are Immediate neighbours of each other.
Neither C nor E is an immediate neighbour of either B or the representative from Canara Bank.
Representative from Bank of Maharashtra sits second to right of D. D is nether the representative of Canara Bank nor Bank of India.
G and the representative from UCO Bank are immediate neighbours of each other.
B is not the representative of UCO Bank. Only one person sits between C and the representative from Oriental Bank of Commerce.
H sits third to left of the representative from Punjab National Bank sits second to left of the representative from Syndicate Bank

A	C
B	H
C	The representative from Canara Bank
D	The representative from Punjab National Bank

Question 20 Explanation:

E, the representative from Punjab National Bank sits second to the left from B, the representative from Syndicate Bank.

Question 21

Who is sitting right to Prakash according to the given below scenario?

Six friends are sitting in a circle and are facing the centre of the circle. Deepa is between Prakash and Pankaj. Priti is between Mukesh and Lalit. Prakash and Mukesh are opposite to each other

A	Mukesh
B	Deepa
C	Pankaj
D	Lalit

Question 21 Explanation:

Hence, Lalit is sitting right to Prakash.

Question 22

Who is just right to Pankaj according to the given scenario?

Six friends are sitting in a circle and are facing the centre of the circle. Deepa is between Prakash and Pankaj. Priti is between Mukesh and Lalit. Prakash and Mukesh are opposite to each other

A	Deepa
B	Lalit
C	Prakash
D	Priti

Question 22 Explanation:

Hence, Deepa is sitting just right to Pankaj

Question 23

Who are the neighbours of Mukesh according to the given scenario?

Six friends are sitting in a circle and are facing the centre of the circle. Deepa is between Prakash and Pankaj. Priti is between Mukesh and Lalit. Prakash and Mukesh are opposite to each other.

A	Prakash and Deepa
B	Deepa and Priti
C	Priti and Pankaj
D	Lalit and Priti

Question 23 Explanation:

Hence, Priti and Pankaj are the neighbours of Mukesh.

Question 24

Who is sitting opposite to Priti according to the given scenario?

Six friends are sitting in a circle and are facing the centre of the circle. Deepa is between Prakash and Pankaj. Priti is between Mukesh and Lalit. Prakash and Mukesh are opposite to each other.

A	Prakash
B	Deepa
C	Pankaj
D	Lalit

Question 24 Explanation:

Hence, Deepa is sitting opposite to Priti.

Question 25

A, P, R, X, S and Z are sitting in a row. S and Z are in the centre. A and P are at the ends. R is sitting to the left of A. Who is to the right of P ?

A	A
B	X
C	Z
D	S

Question 25 Explanation:

The seating arrangement is as follows:

Therefore, right of P is X

Question 26

A, B, C, D and E are sitting on a bench. A is sitting next to B, C is sitting next to D, D is not sitting with E who is on the left end of the bench. C is on the second position from the right. A is to the right of B and E. A and C are sitting together. In which position A is sitting ?

A	Between B and D
B	Between B and C
C	Between E and D
D	Between C and E

Question 26 Explanation:

Therefore, A is sitting in between B and C.

Question 27

P, T, V, R, M, D, K and W are sitting around a circular table facing the Centre. V is second to the left of T. T is fourth to the right of M. D and P are not immediate neighbors of T. D is third to the right of P. W is not an immediate neighbor of P. P is to the immediate left of K.

Who is second to the left of K?

A	P
B	R
C	M
D	W

Question 27 Explanation:

Second to the left of K is R

Question 28

Who is on the immediate left of V ?

A	D
B	M
C	W
D	Data Inadequate

Question 28 Explanation:

Immediate left of V is D

Question 29

Who is third to the right of V ?

A	T
B	K
C	P
D	None of these

Question 29 Explanation:

None of these

Question 30

A	Third to the right
B	Fifth to the right
C	Third to the left
D	Second to the left

Question 30 Explanation:

R’s position with respect to V Third to the right

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Number Series ( Odd Man out)

MS — Thu, 31 Aug 2017 05:55:23 +0000

[vc_row][vc_column][vc_toggle title=”Explanation / Important formulas:” el_id=”1481454282462-60885454-0285″]

Explanantion:

Series:
The terms or elements follow a definite law in series but it cannot be generalized. You should know, what is the definite relationship between numbers which make the set of given terms in series. Addition, subtraction, multiplication, division, transposition of terms and series generally form such series. The different questions asked may depend upon the following:

Odd number/Even number/Prime numbers

The series may consist of odd numbers/even numbers or prime numbers except one number, which will be the odd man out. Hence, before solving numerical on this topic must revise all basic concepts.

Perfect squares/Cubes:

Squares: 9, 16, 49, 81 ….
Cubes: 27, 64, 125, 216 ….

Multiple of numbers:

The series contains numbers which are multiple of different numbers.
Example: 4, 8, 12, 16, 20…..

Numbers in A.P./G.P.

Geometric progression: x, xr, xr³, xr⁴
Arithmetic progression: x, x + y, x + 2y, x + 3y are said to be in A.P.
The terms in series may be arithmetic or geometric progression.

Difference or sum of numbers:

The difference between two consecutive numbers may increase or decrease

Cumulative series:

In this type, the third number is the addition of previous two numbers.
Example: 2, 4, 6, 10, 16, 26 ……

Power series:

In this type, the terms are defined on the basis of powers of numbers; the number may be expressed in the form of n3 – n.
Example: If n = 4, n³ – n = 60 / If n = 5, n³ – n = 120…
Series: 60, 120, 210, 336 …
The series of numbers may follow different sequence as shown below:
(n² – 1), (n² + 1), (n² – n), (n³ – n), (n² – n + 1), (n² – n – 1), etc

[/vc_toggle][vc_toggle title=”Instructions to take Aptitude Test” el_id=”1481454372988-cd8f0f96-30f0″]

Click on start to start taking the test.
Click on the option (A, B, C or D) to figure out the right answer.
You can answer multiple times till you get the right answer.
Once you get the right answer, explanations (if any) for the same will be showcased down.
On click of list, you get to see total no of questions, no of questions you answered and no of questions pending to answer.
On click of question number you will go to that particular question.
On click of END your test will end.
On click of ‘Get Results’ you will get to see correct answer for each questions.

[/vc_toggle][vc_toggle title=”Number Series ( Odd Man out) – Test” el_id=”1481454458410-9a4a39ac-c8b7″]

Number Series (Odd Man Out) - Question and Answers

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Question 1

Find the odd man out 3, 5, 11, 14, 17, 21 ?

A	21
B	17
C	14
D	3

Question 1 Explanation:

Each of the numbers except 14 is an odd number. The number ’14’ is the only EVEN number

Question 2

Find the odd man out 8, 27, 64, 100, 125, 216, 343 ?

A	27
B	100
C	125
D	343

Question 2 Explanation:

The pattern is 23, 33, 43, 53, 63, 73. But, 100 is not a perfect cube

Question 3

Find the odd man out 10, 25, 45, 54, 60, 75, 80 ?

A	10
B	45
C	54
D	75

Question 3 Explanation:

Each of the numbers except 54 is multiple of 5

Question 4

Find the odd man out 396, 462, 572, 427, 671, 264 ?

A	396
B	427
C	671
D	264

Question 4 Explanation:

In each number except 427, the middle digit is the sum of other two

Question 5

Find the odd man out 6, 9, 15, 21, 24, 28, 30 ?

A	28
B	21
C	24
D	30

Question 5 Explanation:

Each of the numbers except 28, is a multiple of 3.

Question 6

Find the odd man out 1, 4, 9, 16, 23, 25, 36 ?

A	9
B	23
C	25
D	36

Question 6 Explanation:

Each of the numbers except 23, is perfect square

Question 7

Find the odd man out 3, 5, 7, 12, 17, 19?

A	19
B	17
C	5
D	12

Question 7 Explanation:

Each of the numbers is a prime number except 12.

Question 8

Find the odd man out 41, 43, 47, 53, 61, 71, 73, 81?

A	61
B	71
C	73
D	81

Question 8 Explanation:

Each of the numbers except 81 is a prime number.

Question 9

Find the odd man out 835, 734, 642, 751, 853, 981, 532?

A	751
B	853
C	981
D	532

Question 9 Explanation:

In each number except 751, the difference of third and first digit is the middle one.

Question 10

Find the odd man out 331, 482, 551, 263, 383, 362, 284?

A	263
B	383
C	331
D	551

Question 10 Explanation:

In each number except 383, the product of first and third digits is the middle one.

Question 11

Find the odd man out 30, -5, -45, -90, -145, -195, -255?

A	-5
B	-145
C	-255
D	-195

Question 11 Explanation:

30
30 - 35 = -5
-5 - 40 = -45
-45 - 45 = -90
-90 - 50 = -140
-140 - 55 = -195
-195 - 60 = -255
Hence, -145 is wrong. -140 should have come in place of -145

Question 12

Find the odd man out. 3576, 1784, 888, 440, 216, 105, 48?

A	105
B	216
C	888
D	1784

Question 12 Explanation:

3576
(3576-8)/2 = 1784
(1784-8)/2 = 888
(888-8)/2 = 440
(440-8)/2 = 216
(216-8)/2 = 104
(104-8)/2 = 48
Hence, 105 is wrong. 104 should have come in place of 105

Question 13

Find the odd man out. 3, 5, 15, 75, 1120, 84375?

A	84375
B	1120
C	15
D	3

Question 13 Explanation:

Pattern : 1st * 2nd = 3rd, 2nd * 3rd = 4th, etc.
3
5
3 × 5 = 15
5 × 15 = 75
15 × 75 = 1125
75 × 1125 = 84375
Hence, 1120 is wrong. 1125 should have come in place of 1120.

Question 14

Find the odd man out. 12, 21, 32, 45, 60, 77, 95?

A	95
B	45
C	32
D	21

Question 14 Explanation:

12 + 9 = 21
21 + 11 = 32
32 + 13 = 45
45 + 15 = 60
60 + 17 = 77
77 + 19 = 96
Hence, 95 is wrong. 96 should have come in place of 95

Question 15

Find the odd man out. 5, 10, 40, 81, 320, 640, 2560?

A	40
B	81
C	320
D	2560

Question 15 Explanation:

Alternatively 2 and 4 are multiplied with the previous terms
5
5 × 2 = 10
10 × 4 = 40
40 × 2 = 80
80 × 4 = 320
320 × 2 = 640
640 × 4 = 2560
Hence, 81 is wrong. 80 should have come in place of 81.

Question 16

Find the odd man out. 125, 127, 130, 135, 142, 153, 165?

A	165
B	142
C	153
D	130

Question 16 Explanation:

Prime numbers 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13 are added successively. Hence, 165 is wrong.

Question 17

Find the odd man out. 241, 263, 248, 271, 255, 277, 26?

A	277
B	271
C	263
D	241

Question 17 Explanation:

Alternatively 22 is added and 15 is subtracted from the terms. Hence, 271 is wrong
241
241 + 22 = 263
263 - 15 = 248
248 + 22 = 270
270 - 15 = 255
255 + 22 = 277
277 - 15 = 262

Question 18

Find the odd man out. 23, 27, 36, 52, 77, 111, 162?

A	162
B	111
C	52
D	27

Question 18 Explanation:

23 + 2² = 27
27 + 3² = 36
36 + 4² = 52
52 + 5² = 77
77 + 6² = 113
113 + 7² = 162
Hence, 113 should have come in place of 111

Question 19

Find the odd man out. 5, 6, 14, 45, 185, 925, 5556?

A	5556
B	925
C	185
D	6

Question 19 Explanation:

5 × 1 + 1 = 6
6 × 2 + 2 = 14
14 × 3 + 3 = 45
45 × 4 + 4 = 184
184 × 5 + 5 = 925
925 × 6 + 6 = 5556
Hence, it is clear that 184 should have come instead of 185

Question 20

Find the odd man out. 3, 8, 18, 38, 78, 158, 316?

A	8
B	158
C	316
D	8

Question 20 Explanation:

3
3 × 2 + 2 = 8
8 × 2 + 2 = 18
18 × 2 + 2 = 38
38 × 2 + 2 = 78
78 × 2 + 2 = 158
158 × 2 + 2 = 318
Hence, 316 is wrong and 318 should have come in place of that

Question 21

Find the odd man out. 2, 3, 5, 9, 12, 17, 23?

A	12
B	9
C	23
D	2

Question 21 Explanation:

2
2 + 1 = 3
3 + 2 = 5
5 + 3 = 8
8 + 4 = 12
12 + 5 = 17
17 + 6 = 23
ie, 8 should have come in place of 9

Question 22

Find the odd man out. 1050, 510, 242, 106, 46, 16, 3?

A	46
B	106
C	510
D	1050

Question 22 Explanation:

1050
(1050 - 30)/2 = 510
(510 - 26)/2 = 242
(242 - 22)/2 = 110
(110 - 18)/2 = 46
(46- 14)/2 = 16
(16- 10)/2 = 3
Hence, 110 should have come in place of 106

Question 23

Find the odd man out. 445, 221, 109, 46, 25, 11, 4?

A	25
B	109
C	46
D	221

Question 23 Explanation:

To obtain next number, subtract 3 from the previous number and divide the result by 2
445
(445-3)/2 = 221
(221-3)/2 = 109
(109-3)/2 = 53
(53-3)/2 = 25
(25-3)/2 = 11
(11-3)/2 = 4
Clearly, 53 should have come in place of 46

Question 24

Find the odd man out. 6, 13, 18, 25, 30, 37, 40?

A	40
B	30
C	37
D	25

Question 24 Explanation:

The difference between two successive terms from the beginning are 7, 5, 7, 5, 7, 5
Hence, in place of 40, right number is 37+5 = 42

Question 25

Find the odd man out. 1, 16, 81, 255, 625, 1296?

A	255
B	1296
C	81
D	1

Question 25 Explanation:

The patter is 1⁴, 2⁴, 3⁴, 4⁴, 5⁴, 6⁴
Hence, in place of 255, the right digit is 4⁴ = 256

Question 26

Find the odd man out. 1, 27, 216, 512, 1024, 1331?

A	1024
B	512
C	27
D	1

Question 26 Explanation:

All given numbers except 1024 are perfect cubes.

Question 27

Find the odd man out. 18, 16, 12, 24, 11, 34, 46?

A	16
B	46
C	16
D	11

Question 27 Explanation:

11 is the only odd number in the given series.

Question 28

Find the odd man out. 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 38, 50, 65?

A	50
B	38
C	26
D	65

Question 28 Explanation:

The pattern is (1×1)+1 , (2×2)+1 , (3×3)+1 , (4×4)+1 , (5×5)+1 , (6×6)+1 , (7×7)+1 , (8×8)+1
Hence, in place of 38, the right number was (6×6)+1 = 37

Question 29

Find the odd man out. 1, 4, 9, 17, 25, 36, 49?

A	1
B	9
C	17
D	49

Question 29 Explanation:

The patter is 1², 2², 3², 4², 5², 6², 7²
But, instead of 4², 17 is given

Question 30

Find the odd man out. 1, 9, 16, 51, 121, 169, 225?

A	169
B	51
C	16
D	1

Question 30 Explanation:

Each of the given numbers except 51 is a perfect square

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There are 30 questions to complete.

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Essential Part

MS — Wed, 30 Aug 2017 00:14:51 +0000

[vc_row][vc_column][vc_toggle title=”Explanation/ Important formulas:” el_id=”1481454282462-60885454-0285″]

Instruction:

Each question has an underlined word followed by four answer choices. You will choose the word that is a necessary part of the underlined word.

[/vc_toggle][vc_toggle title=”Instructions to take Aptitude Test” el_id=”1481454372988-cd8f0f96-30f0″]

Click on start to start taking the test.
Click on the option (A, B, C or D) to figure out the right answer.
You can answer multiple times till you get the right answer.
Once you get the right answer, explanations (if any) for the same will be showcased down.
On click of list, you get to see total no of questions, no of questions you answered and no of questions pending to answer.
On click of question number you will go to that particular question.
On click of END your test will end.
On click of ‘Get Results’ you will get to see correct answer for each questions.
[/vc_toggle][vc_toggle title=”Essential Part – Test” el_id=”1481454458410-9a4a39ac-c8b7″]

Essential Part - Questions and Answers

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Question 1

Antique ?

A	Museum
B	Precious
C	Rarest
D	None of these

Question 1 Explanation:

A collectable object such as a piece of furniture or work of art that has a high value because of its age and quality.

Question 2

Gala ?

A	Celebration
B	tuxedo
C	appetizer
D	orator

Question 2 Explanation:

Explanation: A social occasion with special entertainments or performances

Question 3

Monopoly ?

A	Exclusive
B	gigantic
C	rich
D	corrupt

Question 3 Explanation:

Explanation: The exclusive possession or control of the supply of or trade in a commodity or service

Question 4

Language ?

A	Tongue
B	writing
C	slang
D	words

Question 4 Explanation:

Explanation: The method of human communication, either spoken or written, consisting of the use of words in a structured and conventional way.

Question 5

Writing ?

A	Author
B	Novel
C	Pen
D	Skills

Question 5 Explanation:

Explanation: The activity or occupation of composing text for publication.

Question 6

Painting ?

A	Books
B	Pictures
C	Colours
D	Canvas

Question 6 Explanation:

Explanation: The action or skill of using paint, either in a picture or as decoration.

Question 7

Knowledge ?

A	Teacher
B	Wisdom
C	Learning
D	Power

Question 7 Explanation:

Explanation: Facts, information, and skills acquired through experience or education; the theoretical or practical understanding of a subject

Question 8

Reward ?

A	Student
B	Cash
C	Sponsorship
D	None of these

Question 8 Explanation:

Explanation: A thing given in recognition of service, effort, or achievement

Question 9

Restaurant ?

A	Air-conditioner
B	Ambience
C	Rent
D	None of these

Question 9 Explanation:

Explanation: A place where people pay to sit and eat meals that are cooked and served on the premises.

Question 10

Chocolates ?

A	Moulds
B	Cocoa powder
C	Nuts
D	All of these

Question 10 Explanation:

Explanation: A food in the form of a paste or solid block made from roasted and ground cacao seeds, typically sweetened and eaten as confectionery.

Question 11

Pain ?

A	Cut
B	nuisance
C	Burn
D	Hurt

Question 11 Explanation:

Pain is suffering or hurt, so choice d is the essential element.
Without hurt, there is no pain. A cut (choice a) or a burn ((choice c) may cause pain, but so do many other types of injury.
A nuisance (choice b) is an annoyance that may or may not cause pain.

Question 12

Election ?

A	President
B	November
C	Voter
D	Nation

Question 12 Explanation:

An election does not exist without voters. The election of a president (choice a) is a by product.
Not all elections are held in November (choice b),nor are they nationwide (choice d).

Question 13

Shoe ?

A	sole
B	laces
C	leather
D	walking

Question 13 Explanation:

All shoes have a sole of some sort.Not all shoes are made of leather ((choice c); nor do they all have laces (choice b).
Walking (choice d) is not essential to a shoe.

Question 14

Respiration ?

A	Mouth
B	Oxygen
C	Circulation
D	Carbon monoxide

Question 14 Explanation:

A person or animal must take in oxygen for respiration to occur. A mouth (choice a) is not essential because breathing can occur through the nose. Choices c and d are clearly not essential and can be ruled out.

Question 15

School ?

A	Student
B	Test
C	report card
D	Learning

Question 15 Explanation:

Without students, a school cannot exist; therefore, students are the essential part of schools. The other choices may be related, but they are not essential.

Question 16

harvest ?

A	Autumn
B	Tractor
C	Stockpile
D	Crop

Question 16 Explanation:

To harvest something, one must have a crop, which is the essential element for this item. Autumn (choice a) is not the only time crops are harvested. There may not be enough of a crop to stockpile ((choice c),and you can harvest crops without a tractor (choice b).

Question 17

Swimming ?

A	Pool
B	Water
C	bathing suit
D	life jacket

Question 17 Explanation:

Water is essential for swimming without water, there is no swimming. The other choices are things that may or may not be present.

Question 18

Lightning ?

A	Electricity
B	Brightness
C	Thunder
D	Rain

Question 18 Explanation:

Lightning is produced from a discharge of electricity, so electricity is essential. Thunder and rain are not essential to the production of lightning (choices c and d). Brightness may be a by product of lightning, but it is not essential (choice b).

Question 19

Guitar ?

A	Band
B	Songs
C	Teacher
D	Strings

Question 19 Explanation:

A guitar does not exist without strings, so strings are an essential part of a guitar. A band is not necessary to a guitar (choice a). Guitar playing can be learned without a teacher ((choice c). Songs are by products of a guitar (choice b).

Question 20

Diploma ?

A	Principal
B	employment
C	Curriculum
D	Graduation

Question 20 Explanation:

A diploma is awarded at graduation, so graduation is essential to obtaining a diploma.
Employment may be a by product (choice b).
A principal and a curriculum (choices a and c) may play a role in the awarding of some diplomas, but they are not essential.

Question 21

Wedding ?

A	Love
B	Church
C	Ring
D	Marriage

Question 21 Explanation:

A wedding results in a joining, or a marriage, so choice d is the essential element.
Love (choice a) usually precedes a wedding, but it is not essential. A wedding may take place anywhere,
so a church (choice b) is not required. A ring (choice c) is often used in a wedding, but it is not necessary.

Question 22

Faculty ?

A	Buildings
B	Textbooks
C	Teachers
D	Meetings

Question 22 Explanation:

A faculty consists of a group of teachers and cannot exist without them.
The faculty may work in buildings (choice a), but the buildings aren't essential.
They may use textbooks (choice b) and attend meetings (choice d), but these aren't essential either

Question 23

Recipe ?

A	desserts
B	directions
C	cookbook
D	utensils

Question 23 Explanation:

A recipe is a list of directions to make something.
Recipes may be used to prepare desserts (choice a), among other things.
One does not need a cookbook (choice c) to have a recipe, and utensils (choice d) may or may not be used to make a recipe.

Question 24

Domicile ?

A	tenant
B	dwelling
C	kitchen
D	house

Question 24 Explanation:

A domicile is a legal residence, so dwelling is the essential component for this item.
You do not need a tenant (choice a) in the domicile, nor do you need a kitchen (choice c).
A house (choice d) is just one form of a domicile (which could also be a tent, Hogan, van, camper, motor home, apartment, dormitory, etc.).

Question 25

desert ?

A	cactus
B	arid
C	oasis
D	flat

Question 25 Explanation:

Explanation: A desert is an arid tract of land. Not all deserts are flat (choice d). Not all deserts have cacti or oases (choices a and c).

Question 26

book ?

A	fiction
B	pages
C	pictures
D	learning

Question 26 Explanation:

Explanation: The necessary part of a book is its pages; there is no book without pages.
Not all books are fiction (choice a), and not all books have pictures (choice c).
Learning (choice d) may or may not take place with a book.

Question 27

contract ?

A	agreement
B	document
C	written
D	attorney

Question 27 Explanation:

Explanation: An agreement is necessary to have a contract.
A contract may appear on a document (choice b), but it is not required.
A contract may be oral as well as written, so choice c is not essential.
A contract can be made without an attorney (choice d).

Question 28

hurricane ?

A	beach
B	cyclone
C	damage
D	wind

Question 28 Explanation:

Explanation: A hurricane cannot exist without wind. A beach is not essential to a hurricane (choice a).
A hurricane is a type of cyclone, which rules out (choice b). Not all hurricanes cause damage (choice c).

Question 29

town ?

A	residents
B	skyscrapers
C	libraries
D	libraries

Question 29 Explanation:

Explanation: Residents must be present in order to have a town. A town may be too small to have skyscrapers (choice b).
A town may or may not have parks (choice c) and libraries (choice d), so they are not the essential elements.

Question 30

vibration ?

A	motion
B	electricity
C	science
D	sound

Question 30 Explanation:

Explanation: Something cannot vibrate without creating motion, so motion is essential to vibration.

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There are 30 questions to complete.

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Logical Problems

MS — Wed, 30 Aug 2017 00:14:48 +0000

[vc_row][vc_column][vc_toggle title=”Explanation/ Important formulas:” el_id=”1481454282462-60885454-0285″]

Instruction:

The logic problems in this set present you with three true statements: Fact 1, Fact 2, and Fact 3. Then, you are given three more statements and you must determine which of these, if any, a fact is also.
One or two of the statements could be true; all of the statements could be true; or none of the statements could be true.
Choose your answer based solely on the information given in the first three facts.

[/vc_toggle][vc_toggle title=”Instructions to take Aptitude Test” el_id=”1481454372988-cd8f0f96-30f0″]

Click on start to start taking the test.
Click on the option (A, B, C or D) to figure out the right answer.
You can answer multiple times till you get the right answer.
Once you get the right answer, explanations (if any) for the same will be showcased down.
On click of list, you get to see total no of questions, no of questions you answered and no of questions pending to answer.
On click of question number you will go to that particular question.
On click of END your test will end.
On click of ‘Get Results’ you will get to see correct answer for each questions.
[/vc_toggle][vc_toggle title=”Logical Problems – Test” el_id=”1481454458410-9a4a39ac-c8b7″]

Logical Problems

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Your answers are highlighted below.

Question 1

I) All Lamels are Signots with buttons.

II) No yellow Signots have buttons.

III) No Lamels are yellow.

If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A	True
B	False
C	Uncertain

Question 1 Explanation:

We know that there are Signots with buttons, or Lamels, and that there are yellow Signots, which have no buttons.
Therefore, Lamels do not have buttons and cannot be yellow

Question 2

I) The hotel is two blocks east of the drugstore.

II) The market is one block west of the hotel.

III) The drugstore is west of the market.

If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A	True
B	False
C	Uncertain

Question 2 Explanation:

The market is one block west of the hotel.
The drugstore is two blocks west of the hotel, so the drugstore is west of the market.

Question 3

I) A toothpick is useful.

II) Useful things are valuable.

III) A toothpick is valuable.

If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A	True
B	False
C	Uncertain

Question 3 Explanation:

To the extent that a toothpick is useful, it has value.

Question 4

I) Tom puts on his socks before he puts on his shoes.

II) He puts on his shirt before he puts on his jacket.

III) Tom puts on his shoes before he puts on his shirt.

If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A	True
B	False
C	Uncertain

Question 4 Explanation:

There is not enough information to verify the third statement

Question 5

I) Three pencils cost the same as two erasers.

II) Four erasers cost the same as one ruler.

III) Pencils are more expensive than rulers.

If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A	True
B	False
C	Uncertain

Question 5 Explanation:

Rulers are the most expensive item

Question 6

I) Taking the train across town is quicker than taking the bus.

II) Taking the bus across town is slower than driving a car.

III) Taking the train across town is quicker than driving a car.

If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A	True
B	False
C	Uncertain

Question 6 Explanation:

Both the car and the train are quicker than the bus, but there is no way to make a comparison between the train and the car.

Question 7

I) Cloudy days tend to be more windy than sunny days.

II) Foggy days tend to be less windy than cloudy days.

III) Sunny days tend to be less windy than foggy days. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A	True
B	False
C	Uncertain

Question 7 Explanation:

Cloudy days are the most windy, but there is not enough information to compare the wind on the foggy days with the wind on the sunny days.

Question 8

I) At a parking lot, a sedan is parked to the right of a pickup and to the left of a sport utility vehicle.

II) A minivan is parked to the left of the pickup.

III) The minivan is parked between the pickup and the sedan.

If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A	True
B	False
C	Uncertain

Question 8 Explanation:

This is the order of the cars from left to right: minivan, pickup, sedan, sport utility vehicle.

Question 9

I) The bookstore has a better selection of postcards than the newsstand does.

II) The selection of postcards at the drugstore is better than at the bookstore.

III) The drugstore has a better selection of postcards than the bookstore or the newsstand.

If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A	True
B	False
C	Uncertain

Question 9 Explanation:

Of the three, the drugstore has the best selection of postcards

Question 10

I) A jar of jelly beans contains more red beans than green.

II) There are more yellow beans than red.

III) The jar contains fewer yellow jelly beans than green ones.

If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A	True
B	False
C	Uncertain

Question 10 Explanation:

The first two statements indicate there are more yellow jelly beans than red and green.

Question 11

I) Tanya is older than Eric.

II) Cliff is older than Tanya.

III) Eric is older than Cliff.

If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A	True
B	False
C	Uncertain

Question 11 Explanation:

Because the first two statements are true, Eric is the youngest of the three, so the third statement must be false.

Question 12

I) Blueberries cost more than strawberries.

II) Blueberries cost less than raspberries.

III) Raspberries cost more than strawberries and blueberries.

If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A	True
B	False
C	Uncertain

Question 12 Explanation:

Because the first two statements are true, raspberries are the most expensive of the three

Question 13

I) All the trees in the park are flowering trees.

II) Some of the trees in the park are dogwoods.

III) All dogwoods in the park are flowering trees.

If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A	True
B	False
C	Uncertain

Question 13 Explanation:

All of the trees in the park are flowering trees, So all dogwoods in the park are flowering trees.

Question 14

I) Mara runs faster than Gail.

II) Lily runs faster than Mara.

III) Gail runs faster than Lily.

If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A	True
B	False
C	Uncertain

Question 14 Explanation:

We know from the first two statements that Lily runs fastest. Therefore, the third statement must be false.

Question 15

I) Apartments in the Riverdale Manor cost less than apartments in The Gaslight Commons.

II) Apartments in the Livingston Gate cost more than apartments in the Gaslight Commons.

III) Of the three apartment buildings, the Livingston Gate costs the most.

If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A	True
B	False
C	Uncertain

Question 15 Explanation:

Since the Gaslight Commons costs more than the Riverdale Manor and the Livingston Gate costs more than the Gaslight Commons, it is true that the Livingston Gate costs the most.

Question 16

I) All Lamels are Signots with buttons.

II) No yellow Signots have buttons.

III) No Lamels are yellow.

If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A	True
B	False
C	Uncertain

Question 16 Explanation:

We know that there are Signots with buttons, or Lamels, and that there are yellow Signots, which have no buttons. Therefore, Lamels do not have buttons and cannot be yellow

Question 17

I) The hotel is two blocks east of the drugstore.

II) The market is one block west of the hotel.

III) The drugstore is west of the market.

If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A	True
B	False
C	Uncertain

Question 17 Explanation:

The market is one block west of the hotel. The drugstore is two blocks west of the hotel, so the drugstore is west of the market.

Question 18

I) A toothpick is useful.

II) Useful things are valuable.

III) A toothpick is valuable.

If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A	True
B	False
C	Uncertain

Question 18 Explanation:

To the extent that a toothpick is useful, it has value.

Question 19

I) Tom puts on his socks before he puts on his shoes.

II) He puts on his shirt before he puts on his jacket.

III) Tom puts on his shoes before he puts on his shirt.

If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A	True
B	False
C	Uncertain

Question 19 Explanation:

There is not enough information to verify the third statement.

Question 20

I) Three pencils cost the same as two erasers.

II) Four erasers cost the same as one ruler.

III) Pencils are more expensive than rulers.

If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A	True
B	False
C	Uncertain

Question 20 Explanation:

Rulers are the most expensive item.

Question 21

Fact 1 : All dogs like to run

Fact 2 : Some dogs like to swim

Fact 3 : Some dogs look like their masters.

If the first three statements are facts, which of the following statements must also be a fact ?

I:All dogs who like to swim look like their masters

II:Dogs who like to swim also like to run

III:Dogs who like to run do not look like their masters

A	I only
B	II only
C	II and III only
D	None of the statements is a known fact.

Question 21 Explanation:

Statement II is the only true statement. Since all dogs like to run, then the ones who like to swim also like to run. There is no support for statement I or statement III.

Question 22

Fact 1 : Jessica has four children

Fact 2 : Two of the children have blue eyes and two of the children have brown eyes

Fact 3 : Half of the children are girls.

If the first three statements are facts, which of the following statements must also be a fact?

I:At least one girl has blue eyes

II:Two of the children are boys

III:The boys have brown eyes

A	I only
B	II only
C	II and III only
D	None of the statements is a known fact.

Question 22 Explanation:

Since one-half of the four children are girls, two must be boys. It is not clear which children have blue or brown eyes

Question 23

Fact 1 : All drink mixes are beverages

Fact 2 : All beverages are drinkable

Fact 3 : Some beverages are red.

If the first three statements are facts, which of the following statements must also be a fact?

I : Some drink mixes are red.

II : All beverages are drink mixes

III : All red drink mixes are drinkable

A	I and II only
B	II only
C	I and III only
D	III only
E	None of the statements is a known fact.

Question 23 Explanation:

Only III statement is true

Question 24

Fact 1 : All chickens are birds

Fact 2 : Some chickens are hens.

Fact 3 : Female birds lay eggs.

If the first three statements are facts, which of the following statements must also be a fact?

I : All birds lay eggs.

II : Some Hens are birds

III : Some chickens are not hens.

A	I only
B	II only
C	II and III only
D	None of the statements is a known fact.

Question 24 Explanation:

The first statement cannot be true because only female birds lay eggs. Statement II is true because some hens are chickens and all chickens are birds. Statement III is also true because if only some chickens are hens, then some must not be hens.

Question 25

Fact 1 : All hats have brims.

Fact 2 : There are black hats and blue hats.

Fact 3 : Baseball caps are hats.

If the first three statements are facts, which of the following statements must also be a fact?

I : All caps have brims.

II : Some baseball caps are blue.

III : Baseball caps have no brims.

A	I only
B	II only
C	II and III only
D	None of the statements is a known fact.

Question 25 Explanation:

All baseball caps have brims, since baseball caps are hats (Fact 3) and all hats have brims (Fact 1). This rules out statement III, but it doesn't follow that all caps, a category that may include caps that are not baseball caps, have brims (statement I). Statement II cannot be confirmed, either, since it is possible, given the information, that all baseball caps are black.

Question 26

I) A fruit basket contains more apples than lemons.

II) There are more lemons in the basket than there are oranges.

III) The basket contains more apples than oranges.

If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A	True
B	False
C	Uncertain

Question 26 Explanation:

There are fewer oranges than either apples or lemons, so the statement is true.
Easy method: (Try this method to solve without any confusion)
=> A fruit basket contains more apples than lemons = App > Lem
=> There are more lemons in the basket than there are oranges = Lem > Org
=> Now, Combine the above two results: App > Lem > Org
=> The basket contains more apples than oranges (App > ... > Org) = Yes.
=> Therefore, the given 3rd statement is true.

Question 27

I) The Shop and Save Grocery is south of Greenwood Pharmacy.

II) Rebecca's house is northeast of Greenwood Pharmacy.

III) Rebecca's house is west of the Shop and Save Grocery.

If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A	True
B	False
C	Uncertain

Question 27 Explanation:

Because the first two statements are true, Rebecca's house is also northeast of the Shop and Save Grocery, which means that the third statement is false.

Question 28

I) Joe is younger than Kathy.

II) Mark was born after Joe.

III) Kathy is older than Mark.

If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A	True
B	False
C	Uncertain

Question 28 Explanation:

Joe is younger than Kathy and older than Mark, so Mark must be younger than Kathy.

Question 29

I) On the day the Barton triplets are born,

II) Jenna weighs more than Jason.

III) Jason weighs less than Jasmine.

IV) Of the three babies, Jasmine weighs the most.

If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A	True
B	False
C	Uncertain

Question 29 Explanation:

We only know that Jasmine weighs more than Jason. There is no way to tell whether Jasmine also weighs more than Jenna.

Question 30

I) The temperature on Monday was lower than on Tuesday.

II) The temperature on Wednesday was lower than on Tuesday.

III) The temperature on Monday was higher than on Wednesday.

If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A	True
B	False
C	Uncertain

Question 30 Explanation:

We know from the first two statements that Tuesday had the highest temperature, but we cannot know whether Monday's temperature was higher than Tuesday's

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Logical Sequence of words

MS — Wed, 30 Aug 2017 00:13:46 +0000

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Instruction:

The logical sequence of words where you have arrange these words in a meaningful order.
The order may be according to age, size and need etc.

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You can answer multiple times till you get the right answer.
Once you get the right answer, explanations (if any) for the same will be showcased down.
On click of list, you get to see total no of questions, no of questions you answered and no of questions pending to answer.
On click of question number you will go to that particular question.
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Logical Sequence of words - Question and Answers

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Question 1

Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence.

Presentation 2. Recommendation 3. Arriva 4. Discussion 5. Introduction

A	5,3,4,1,2
B	3,5,4,2,1
C	3,5,1,4,2
D	5,3,1,2,4

Question 1 Explanation:

The correct order is : Arrival Introduction Presentation Discussion Recommendation
3 5 1 4 2

Question 2

Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence.

Poverty 2. Population 3. Death 4. Unemployment 5. Disease

A	2, 3, 4, 5, 1
B	3, 4, 2, 5, 1
C	2, 4, 1, 5, 3
D	1, 2, 3, 4, 5

Question 2 Explanation:

Explanation: The correct order is :
Population Unemployment Poverty Disease Death 2 4 1 5 3

Question 3

Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence.

Caste 2. Family 3. Newly married Couple 4. Clan 5. Species

A	2, 3, 1, 4, 5
B	3, 4, 5, 1, 2
C	3, 2, 1, 4, 5
D	4, 5, 3, 2, 1

Question 3 Explanation:

Explanation: The correct order is :
Newly married Couple Family Caste Clan Species 3 2 1 4 5

Question 4

Arrange the following in a logical order:

Euphoria 2. Happiness 3. Ambivalence 4. Ecstasy 5. Pleasure

A	3, 2, 5, 1, 4
B	2, 1, 3, 4, 5
C	3, 2, 5, 1, 4
D	4, 1, 3, 2, 5

Question 4 Explanation:

Explanation: All the given words stand for 'Joy', but the intensity increases in the order - Ambivalence, Happiness, Pleasure, Euphoria, Ecstasy.
Thus the correct order is 3, 2, 5, 1, 4.
Hence the answer is (C)

Question 5

Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence.

Elephant 2. Cat 3. Mosquito 4. Tiger 5. Whale

A	5, 3, 1, 2, 4
B	3, 2, 4, 1, 5
C	1, 3, 5, 4, 2
D	2, 5, 1, 4, 3

Question 5 Explanation:

Explanation: The correct order is :
Mosquito Cat Tiger Elephant Whale 3 2 4 1 5

Question 6

Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence.

Heel 2. Shoulder 3. Skull 4. Neck 5. Knee 6. Chest 7. Thigh 8. Stomach 9. Face 10. Hand.

A	3, 4, 7, 9, 2, 5, 8, 10, 6, 1
B	3, 9, 4, 2, 10, 6, 8, 7, 5, 1
C	2, 4, 7, 10, 1, 5, 8, 9, 6, 3
D	4, 7, 10, 1, 9, 6, 2, 5, 8, 3

Question 6 Explanation:

The correct order is:
Skull Face Neck Shoulder Hand Chest Stomach Thigh Knee Heel
3 9 4 2 10 6 8 7 5 1

Question 7

Arrange the given words in a meaningful sequence.

Adult 2. Child 3. Infant 4. Boy 5. Adolescent

A	1, 3, 4, 5, 2
B	2, 3, 5, 4, 1
C	2, 3, 4, 1, 5
D	3, 2, 4, 5, 1

Question 7 Explanation:

Explanation: The Correct Sequence is:
Infant Child Boy Adolescent Adult
3 2 4 5 1

Question 8

Arrange the given words in a meaningful sequence.

Rainbow 2. Rain 3. Sun 4. Happy 5. Child

A	4, 2, 3, 5, 1
B	2, 3, 1, 5, 4
C	4, 5, 1, 2, 3
D	2, 1, 4, 5, 3

Question 8 Explanation:

Explanation: The Correct Sequence is:
Rain Sun Rainbow Child Happy
2 3 1 5 4

Question 9

Arrange the given words in a meaningful sequence.

Ceiling 2. Room 3. Floor 4. Walls 5. Foundation

A	5,4,1,3,2
B	5,4,3,1,2
C	4,5,3,1,2
D	4,5,1,2,3

Question 9 Explanation:

Explanation: The Correct Sequence is:
Foundation Walls Ceiling Floor Room
5 4 1 3 2

Question 10

Arrange the given words in a meaningful sequence.

Flat 2. Home 3. Building 4. Society 5. Place

A	5,4,3,1,2
B	5,4,3,2,1
C	4,3,1,2,5
D	4,5,3,1,2

Question 10 Explanation:

Explanation: The Correct Sequence is :
Place Society Building Flat Home
5 4 3 1 2

Question 11

Arrange the following in a logical order :

Shoulder 2. Wrist 3. Elbow 4. Palm 5. Finger

A	2, 4, 5, 3, 1
B	3, 1, 4, 2, 5
C	3, 4, 5, 2, 1
D	5, 4, 2, 3, 1

Question 11 Explanation:

Explanation: Clearly, Here are the names of parts of a hand, Which may be arranged
(i) from top to bottom, i.e, Shoulder, Elbow, Wrist, Palm, Finger - Which is 1, 3, 2, 4, 5 (or)
(ii) from bottom to top, i.e, Finger, Palm, Wrist, Elbow, Shoulder - Which is 5, 4, 2, 3, 1
Out of these, the sequence 5, 4, 2, 3, 1 is given in the alternatives provided. Hence, the answer is (D).

Question 12

Arrange the given words in a meaningful sequence.

Grain 2. Plant 3. Sandwich 4. Bread 5. Dough

A	1,2,5,4,3
B	2,1,4,5,3
C	2,1,5,4,3
D	2,1,4,5,3

Question 12 Explanation:

Explanation: The Correct Sequence is :
Plant Grain Dough Bread Sandwich
2 1 5 4 3

Question 13

Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence

key 2. Door 3. lock 4. Room 5. Switch on

A	5, 1, 2, 4, 3
B	4, 2, 1, 5, 3
C	1, 3, 2, 4, 5
D	1, 2, 3, 5, 4

Question 13 Explanation:

Explanation: The correct order is :
Key Lock Door Room Switch on
1 3 2 4 5

Question 14

Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence.

Word 2. Paragraph 3. Sentence 4. Letters 5.phrase

A	4, 1, 5, 2, 3
B	4, 1, 3, 5, 2
C	4, 2, 5, 1, 3
D	4, 1, 5, 3, 2

Question 14 Explanation:

Explanation: The correct order is :
Letters Word Phrase Sentence Paragraph
4 1 5 3 2

Question 15

Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence

Police 2. Punishment 3. Crime 4. Judge 5. Judgement

A	3, 1, 2, 4, 5
B	1, 2, 4, 3, 5
C	5, 4, 3, 2, 1
D	3, 1, 4, 5, 2

Question 15 Explanation:

Explanation: The correct order is :
Crime Police Judge Judgement Punishment
3 1 4 5 2

Question 16

Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence

Family 2. Community 3. Member 4. Locality 5. Country

A	3, 1, 2, 4, 5
B	3, 1, 2, 5, 4
C	3, 1, 4, 2, 5
D	3, 1, 4, 5, 2

Question 16 Explanation:

Explanation: The correct order is :
Member Family Community Locality Country
3 1 2 4 5

Question 17

Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence

Poverty 2. Population 3. Death 4. Unemployment 5. Disease

A	2, 3, 4, 5, 1
B	3, 4, 2, 5, 1
C	2, 4, 1, 5, 3
D	1, 2, 3, 4, 5

Question 17 Explanation:

Explanation: The correct order is :
Population Unemployment Poverty Disease Death
2 4 1 5 3

Question 18

Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence

Income 2. Status 3. Education 4. Well-being 5. Job

A	3, 1, 5, 2, 4
B	1, 3, 2, 5, 4
C	1, 2, 5, 3, 4
D	3, 5, 1, 2, 4

Question 18 Explanation:

Explanation: The correct order is :
Education Job Income Status Well-being
3 5 1 2 4

Question 19

Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence

Heel 2. Shoulder 3. Skull 4. Neck 5. Knee 6. Chest 7. Thigh 8. Stomach 9. Face 10. Hand

A	3, 4, 7, 9, 2, 5, 8, 10, 6, 1
B	3, 9, 4, 2, 10, 6, 8, 7, 5, 1
C	2, 4, 7, 10, 1, 5, 8, 9, 6, 3
D	4, 7, 10, 1, 9, 6, 2, 5, 8, 3

Question 19 Explanation:

Explanation: The correct order is :
Skull Face Neck Shoulder Hand Chest Stomach Thigh Knee Heel
3 9 4 2 10 6 8 7 5 1

Question 20

Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence

Rainbow 2. Rain 3. Sun 4.Happy 5. Child

A	4, 2, 3, 5, 1
B	2, 3, 1, 5, 4
C	4, 5, 1, 2, 3
D	2, 1, 4, 5, 3

Question 20 Explanation:

Explanation: The correct order is :
Rain Sun Rainbow Child Happy
2 3 1 5 4

Question 21

Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence

Skull 2. Shoulder 3. Neck 4. Face 5. Legs

A	1,2,3,4,5
B	1,4,3,2,5
C	1,3,4,2,5
D	1,4,2,3,5

Question 21 Explanation:

Explanation:
Skull Face Neck Shoulder Legs 1 4 3 2 5

Question 22

Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence

Sun 2. Planet 3. Galaxy 4. Stars 5. Moon

A	1,3,2,5,4
B	1,3,2,4,5
C	3,1,2,5,4
D	3,2,1,5,4

Question 22 Explanation:

Explanation:
Galaxy Sun Planet Moon Stars 3 1 2 5 4

Question 23

Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence

Education 2. Job 3. Selection 4. Salary 5. Interview

A	1,3,5,2,4
B	1,5,3,2,4
C	1,2,3,5,4
D	1,5,2,4,3

Question 23 Explanation:

Explanation:
Education Interview Selection Job Salary
1 5 3 2 4

Question 24

Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence

Child 2. Play 3. Game 4. Chess 5. Happy

A	1,3,2,4,5
B	1,2,3,4,5
C	1,3,4,2,5
D	5,1,2,3,4

Question 24 Explanation:

Explanation:
Child Play Game Chess Happy
1 2 3 4 5

Question 25

Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence

Teacher 2. College 3. Guide 4. Study 5. Exam

A	2,3,1,4,5
B	2,4,1,3,5
C	4,1,2,3,5
D	2,1,3,4,5

Question 25 Explanation:

Explanation:
College Teacher Guide Study Exam
2 1 3 4 5

Question 26

Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence

Index 2. Chapter 3. Book 4. Introduction 5. Questions

A	3,4,1,2,5
B	3,1,4,2,5
C	3,1,2,5,4
D	4,3,1,2,5

Question 26 Explanation:

Explanation:
Book Introduction Index Chapter Questions
3 4 1 2 5

Question 27

Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence

Grain 2. Plant 3. Sandwich 4. Bread 5. Dough

A	1,2,5,4,3
B	2,1,4,5,3
C	2,1,5,4,3
D	2,1,4,5,3

Question 27 Explanation:

Explanation:
Plant Grain Dough Bread Sandwich
2 1 5 4 3

Question 28

Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence

Office 2. Save 3. Work 4. Earn 5. Spend

A	1,3,4,2,5
B	1,4,3,5,2
C	1,3,4,5,2
D	3,1,4,5,2

Question 28 Explanation:

Explanation:
Office Work Earn Save Spend
1 3 4 2 5

Question 29

Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence

Planet 2. Continents 3. Countries 4. Cities 5. Land

A	1,2,5,3,4
B	1,5,2,3,4
C	1,2,3,5,4
D	1,3,4,2,5

Question 29 Explanation:

Explanation:
Planet Land Continents Countries Cities
1 5 2 3 4

Question 30

Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence

Animal 2. Cow 3. Grass 4. Mammal 5. Milk

A	4,1,2,5,3
B	1,4,2,5,3
C	1,4,2,3,5
D	4,1,2,3,5

Question 30 Explanation:

Explanation:
Animal Mammal Cow Grass Milk
1 4 2 3 5

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Directions

MS — Tue, 29 Aug 2017 06:11:41 +0000

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The Concept behind the Directions is same that we use in our day to day life. This direction sense test is nothing but a precise of sensing the direction. To solve the direction sense test first you need to make a sketch of the data provided. We have clearly described the direction Sense test Tricks, tips and Shortcut here.Basic concepts:Four main Directions – North, South, East, WestFour Cardinal Direction – North-East, North-West, South-East, South-West
At the time of sunrise if a man stands facing the east, his shadow will be towards the west
At the time of sunset the shadow of an object is always in the east
If a man stands facing the North, at the time of sunrise his shadow will be towards his left and at the time of sunset it will be towards his right
At 12:00 noon, the rays of the sun are vertically downward hence there will be no shadow

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Click on start to start taking the test.
Click on the option (A, B, C or D) to figure out the right answer.
You can answer multiple times till you get the right answer.
Once you get the right answer, explanations (if any) for the same will be showcased down.
On click of list, you get to see total no of questions, no of questions you answered and no of questions pending to answer.
On click of question number you will go to that particular question.
On click of END your test will end.
On click of ‘Get Results’ you will get to see correct answer for each questions.

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Directions - Question and Answers

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Question 1

Sagar was riding bike towards north, turned left and road 1km. then turn towards left & road 2km, found himself 1km west of straight point. How far is he to road north?

A	1 km
B	3 km
C	2 km
D	4 km

Question 1 Explanation:

He traveled total distance of 3km, from which he traveled 1km in west
Hence, all he travelled total 2km in north

Question 2

Some boys are sitting in three rows all facing North such that A is in the middle row. P is just to the right of A but in the same row. Q is just behind of P while R is in the North of A. In which direction of R is Q?

A	South
B	South-West
C	North-East
D	South-East

Question 2 Explanation:

Q is in South-East of R

Question 3

Shyam walks 5 km towards East and then turns left and walks 6 km. Again he turns right and walks 9 km. Finally he turns to his right and walks 6 km. How far is he from the starting point?

A	26 km
B	21 km
C	14 km
D	9 km

Question 3 Explanation:

Question 4

Sundar runs 20 m towards East and turns to right and runs 10 m. Then he turns to the right and runs 9 m. Again he turns to right and runs 5 m. After this he turns to left and runs 12 m and finally he turns to right and 6 m. Now to which direction is Sundar facing?

A	East
B	West
C	North
D	South

Question 4 Explanation:

Therefore, it is clear that Sundar will face towards North

Question 5

A child went 90 m in the East to look for his father, then he turned right and went 20 m. After this he turned right and after going 30 m he reached to his uncle's house. His father was not there. From there he went 100 m to his north and met his father. How far did he meet his father from the starting point?

A	100 m
B	80 m
C	140 m
D	260 m

Question 5 Explanation:

Question 6

One morning after sunrise, Suresh was standing facing a pole. The shadow of the pole fell exactly to his right. To which direction was he facing?

A	East
B	South
C	West
D	Data is inadequate

Question 6 Explanation:

Sun rises in the east in the morning
Since the shadow of Suresh falls to his right
So he is facing South

Question 7

Reena walked from A to B in the East 10 feet. Then she turned to the right and walked 3 feet. Again she turned to the right and walked 14 feet. How far is she from A?

A	4 feet
B	5 feet
C	24 feet
D	27 feet

Question 7 Explanation:

Question 8

x started to walk straight towards south. After walking 5 m he turned to the left and walked 3 m. After this he turned to the right and walked 5 m Now to which direction X is facing?

A	North-East
B	South
C	North
D	South-West

Question 8 Explanation:

Hence X will face in the end towards South

Question 9

P started from his house towards west. After walking a distance of 25 m. He turned to the right and walked 10 m. He then again turned to the right and walked 15 m. After this he is to turn right at 135^o and to cover 30 m. In which direction should he go?

A	West
B	South
C	South-West
D	South-East

Question 9 Explanation:

Hence he should go in the South-West direction

Question 10

Golu started from his house towards North. After covering a distance of 8 km. He turned towards left and covered a distance of 6 km. What is the shortest distance now from his house?

A	10 km
B	16 km
C	14 km
D	2 km

Question 10 Explanation:

Question 11

One morning after sunrise, Vimal started to walk. During this walking he met Stephen who was coming from opposite direction. Vimal watch that the shadow of Stephen to the right of him (Vimal). To Which direction Vimal was facing?

A	East
B	West
C	South
D	Data inadequate

Question 11 Explanation:

Sun rises in the east. So the shadow of a man will always falls towards the west
Since the shadow of Stephen is to the right of Vimal
Hence Vimal is facing towards South

Question 12

The length and breadth of a room are 8 m and 6 m respectively. A cat runs along all the four walls and finally along a diagonal order to catch a rat. How much total distance is covered by the cat?

A	10
B	14
C	38
D	48

Question 12 Explanation:

Question 13

One morning sujata started to walk towards the Sun. After covering some distance she turned to right then again to the right and after covering some distance she again turns to the right. Now in which direction is she facing?

A	North
B	South
C	North-East
D	South-West

Question 13 Explanation:

Hence finally Sujata will face towards North

Question 14

A man walks 2 km towards North. Then he turns to East and walks 10 km. After this he turns to North and walks 3 km. Again he turns towards East and walks 2 km. How far is he from the starting point?

A	10 km
B	13 km
C	15 km
D	None of these

Question 14 Explanation:

Question 15

K is 40 m South-West of L. If M is 40 m South-East of L, then M is in which direction of K?

A	A. East
B	West
C	North-East
D	South

Question 15 Explanation:

Hence M is in the East of K

Question 16

A boy rode his bicycle Northward, then turned left and rode 1 km and again turned left and rode 2 km. He found himself 1 km west of his starting point. How far did he ride northward initially?

A	1 km
B	2 km
C	3 km
D	5 km

Question 16 Explanation:

The boy rode 2 km. Northward

Question 17

One evening before sunset Rekha and Hema were talking to each other face to face. If Hema's shadow was exactly to the right of Hema, which direction was Rekha facing?

A	North
B	South
C	East
D	Data is inadequate

Question 17 Explanation:

In the evening sun sets in West. Hence then any shadow falls in the East. Since Hema's shadow was to the right of Hema. Hence Rekha was facing towards South

Question 18

Starting from the point X, Jayant walked 15 m towards west. He turned left and walked 20 m. He then turned left and walked 15 m. After this he turned to his right and walked 12 m. How far and in which directions is now Jayant from X?

A	32 m, South
B	47 m, East
C	42 m, North
D	27 m, South

Question 18 Explanation:

Question 19

Two cars start from the opposite places of a main road, 150 km apart. First car runs for 25 km and takes a right turn and then runs 15 km. It then turns left and then runs for another 25 km and then takes the direction back to reach the main road. In the mean time, due to minor break down the other car has run only 35 km along the main road. What would be the distance between two cars at this point?

A	65 km
B	75 km
C	80 km
D	85 km

Question 19 Explanation:

Question 20

Rasik walked 20 m towards north. Then he turned right and walks 30 m. Then he turns right and walks 35 m. Then he turns left and walks 15 m. Finally he turns left and walks 15 m. In which direction and how many metres is he from the starting position?

A	15 m West
B	30 m East
C	30 m West
D	45 m East

Question 20 Explanation:

Question 21

Rahul put his timepiece on the table in such a way that at 6 P.M. hour hand points to North. In which direction the minute hand will point at 9.15 P.M.?

A	South-East
B	South
C	North
D	West

Question 21 Explanation:

At 9.15 P.M., the minute hand will point towards west

Question 22

A man walks 5 km toward south and then turns to the right. After walking 3 km he turns to the left and walks 5 km. Now in which direction is he from the starting place?

A	West
B	South
C	North-East
D	South-West

Question 22 Explanation:

Hence required direction is South-West

Question 23

If South-East becomes North, North-East becomes West and so on. What will West become?

A	North-East
B	North-West
C	South-East
D	South-West

Question 23 Explanation:

It is clear from the diagrams that new name of West will become South-East

Question 24

One morning Udai and Vishal were talking to each other face to face at a crossing. If Vishal's shadow was exactly to the left of Udai, which direction was Udai facing?

A	East
B	West
C	North
D	South

Question 24 Explanation:

Question 25

Y is in the East of X which is in the North of Z. If P is in the South of Z, then in which direction of Y, is P?

A	North
B	South
C	South-East
D	None of these

Question 25 Explanation:

P is in South-West of Y

Question 26

If the flats of P and T are interchanged then whose flat will be next to that of U? The above question is based on the following information:

Six flats on a floor in two rows facing North and South are allotted to P, Q, R, S, T and U.
Q gets a North facing flat and is not next to S.
S and U get diagonally opposite flats.

R next to U, gets a south facing flat and T gets North facing flat.

A	P
B	Q
C	R
D	T

Question 26 Explanation:

Hence flat R will be next to U

Question 27

Which of the following combination get south facing flats? The above question is based on the following information:

Six flats on a floor in two rows facing North and South are allotted to P, Q, R, S, T and U.
Q gets a North facing flat and is not next to S.
S and U get diagonally opposite flats.

R next to U, gets a south facing flat and T gets North facing flat.

A	QTS
B	UPT
C	URP
D	Data is inadequate

Question 27 Explanation:

Hence URP flat combination get south facing flats.

Question 28

The flats of which of the other pair than SU, is diagonally opposite to each other? The above question is based on the following information:

Six flats on a floor in two rows facing North and South are allotted to P, Q, R, S, T and U.
Q gets a North facing flat and is not next to S.
S and U get diagonally opposite flats.

R next to U, gets a south facing flat and T gets North facing flat.

A	QP
B	QR
C	PT
D	TS

Question 28 Explanation:

Hence QP is diagonally opposite to each other.

Question 29

Whose flat is between Q and S? The above questions is based on the following information:

Six flats on a floor in two rows facing North and South are allotted to P, Q, R, S, T and U.
Q gets a North facing flat and is not next to S.
S and U get diagonally opposite flats.

R next to U, gets a south facing flat and T gets North facing flat.

A	T
B	U
C	R
D	P

Question 29 Explanation:

Hence flat T is between Q and S

Question 30

Sachin walks 20 km towards North. He turns left and walks 40 km. He again turns left and walks 20 km. Finally he moves 20 km after turning to the left. How far is he from his starting position?

A	20 km
B	30 km
C	50 km
D	60 km

Question 30 Explanation:

Required distance = 40 - 20 = 20 km

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Course of Action

MS — Mon, 28 Aug 2017 04:08:47 +0000

[vc_row][vc_column][vc_toggle title=”Explanation / Important formulas:” el_id=”1481454282462-60885454-0285″]

Explanation:

Each question in this section is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and on the basis of the information given in the statement, decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.Give answer

(A) If only I follows
(B) If only II follows
(C) If either I or II follows
(D) If neither I nor II follows
(E) If both I and II follow

[/vc_toggle][vc_toggle title=”Instructions to take Aptitude Test” el_id=”1481454372988-cd8f0f96-30f0″]

Click on start to start taking the test.
Click on the option (A, B, C or D) to figure out the right answer.
You can answer multiple times till you get the right answer.
Once you get the right answer, explanations (if any) for the same will be showcased down.
On click of the list, you get to see total no of questions, no of questions you answered and no of questions pending to answer.
On click of question number, you will go to that particular question.
On click of END, your test will end.
On click of ‘Get Results’ you will get to see correct answer for each questions.

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Course of Action - Question and Answers

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Question 1

Statement: A large number of people in ward X of the city are diagnosed to be suffering from a fatal malaria type.

Courses of Action:

I) The city municipal authority should take immediate steps to carry out extensive fumigation in ward X.

II) The people in the area should be advised to take steps to avoid mosquito bites.

A	Only I follows
B	Only II follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Both I and II follow

Question 1 Explanation:

Clearly, prevention from mosquitoes and elimination of mosquitoes are two ways to prevent malaria.
So, both the courses follow.

Question 2

Statement: Severe drought is reported to have set in several parts of the country.

Courses of Action:

I) Government should immediately make arrangement for providing financial assistance to those affected.

II) Food, water and fodder should immediately be sent to all these areas to save the people and cattle

A	Only I follows
B	Only II follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Both I and II follow

Question 2 Explanation:

In the break-out of a natural calamity, the basic duty of the government becomes to provide the basic amenities essential to save the lives of people and cattle.
Providing financial assistance to all would put undue burden on the country's resources. So, only II follows

Question 3

Statement: Since its launching in 1981, Vayudoot has so far accumulated losses amounting to Rs 153 crore.

Courses of Action:

I) Vayudoot should be directed to reduce wasteful expenditure and to increase passenger fare.

II) An amount of about Rs 300 crore should be provided to Vayudoot to make the airliner economically viable.

A	Only I follows
B	Only II follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Both I and II follow

Question 3 Explanation:

Clearly, for better economic gain, losses should be reduced and income increased.
So, only course I follows.

Question 4

Statement: Exporters in the capital are alleging that commercial banks are violating a Reserve Bank of India directive to operate a post shipment export credit denominated in foreign currency at international rates from January this year.

Courses of Action:

I) The officers concerned in the commercial banks are to be suspended.

II) The RBI should be asked to stop giving such directives to commercial banks.

A	Only I follows
B	Only II follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Both I and II follow

Question 4 Explanation:

The statement mentions that the commercial banks violate a directive issued by the RBI.
The remedy is only to make the banks implement the Act.
So, none of the courses follows

Question 5

Statement: A large number of people die every year due to drinking polluted water during the summer.

Courses of Action:

I) The government should make adequate arrangements to provide safe drinking water to all its citizens.

II) The people should be educated about the dangers of drinking polluted water.

A	Only I follows
B	Only II follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Both I and II follow

Question 5 Explanation:

The situation demands creating awareness among people about the dangers of drinking polluted water so that they themselves refrain from the same, and at the same time taking steps to provide safe drinking water.
So, both the courses follow.

Question 6

Statement: There is an unprecedented increase in migration of villagers to urban areas as repeated crop failure has put them into precarious financial situation.

Courses of Action:

I) The villagers should be provided with alternate source of income in their villages which will make them stay put.

II) The migrated villagers should be provided with jobs in the urban areas to help them survive

A	Only I follows
B	Only II follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Both I and II follow

Question 6 Explanation:

Clearly, increased migration would add to the burden on city's infrastructure.
So, attempts should be made to make the villagers feel comfortable in the villages itself.
So, only course I follows.

Question 7

Statement: As stated in the recent census report the female to male ratio is alarmingly low.

Courses of Action:

I) The government should conduct another census to verify the results.

II) The government should immediately issue orders to all the departments to encourage people to improve the ratio.

A	Only I follows
B	Only II follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Both I and II follow

Question 7 Explanation:

A census is always conducted with the utmost precision, leaving chances of only negligible differences.
So, I does not follow. Further, the ratio can be improved by creating awareness among the masses and abolishing female foeticide.
Thus, only course II follows

Question 8

Statement: Four districts in State A have been experiencing severe drought for the last three years resulting into exodus of people from these districts.

Courses of Action:

I) The government should immediately start food for work programme in the district to put a halt to the exodus.

II) The government should make since efforts to provide drinking/potable water to these districts.

A	Only I follows
B	Only II follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Both I and II follow

Question 8 Explanation:

The exodus can be stopped by providing the people conditions conducive to living.
So, both the courses follow

Question 9

Statement: If the retired Professors of the same Institutes are also invited to deliberate on restructuring of the organisation, their contribution may be beneficial to the Institute.

Courses of Action:

I) Management may seek opinion of the employees before calling retired professors.

II) Management should involve experienced people for the systematic restructuring of the organisation.

A	Only I follows
B	Only II follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Both I and II follow

Question 9 Explanation:

Clearly, the statement stresses that the contribution of retired Professors shall be beneficial.
This means that these people's experience regarding working of the organisation is helpful.
So, only course II follows.

Question 10

Statement: The sale of a particular product has gone down considerably causing great concern to the company.

Courses of Action:

I) The company should make a proper study of rival products in the market.

II) The price of the product should be reduced and quality improved.

A	Only I follows
B	Only II follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Both I and II follow

Question 10 Explanation:

Clearly, a study of rival products in the market will help assess the cause for the lowering down of sales and then a suitable action can be taken.
Thus, only I follow

Question 11

Statement: The Asian Development Bank has approved a $285 million loan to finance a project to construct coal ports by Paradip and Madras Port Trusts.

Courses of Action:

I) India should use financial assistance from other international financial organisations to develop such ports in other places.

II) India should not seek such financial assistance from the international financial agencies.

A	Only I follows
B	Only II follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Both I and II follow

Question 11 Explanation:

Clearly, such projects shall be an asset and a source of income to the country later on.
So, course I shall follow.

Question 12

Statement: Doordarshan is concerned about the quality of its programmes particularly in view of stiff competition it is facing from STAR and other satellite TV channels and is contemplating various measures to attract talent for its programmes.

Courses of Action:

I) In an effort to attract talent, the Doordarshan has decided to revise its fee structure for the artists.

II) The fee structure should not be revised until other electronic media also revise it.

A	Only I follows
B	Only II follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Both I and II follow

Question 12 Explanation:

Clearly, the decision to revise its fee structure for artists is taken by Doordarshan as a remedy to the challenging problem that had arisen before it.
It cannot wait till other media take action. So, only course I follows

Question 13

Statement: The Minister said that the teachers are still not familiarised with the need, importance and meaning of population education in the higher education system. They are not even clearly aware about their role and responsibilities in the population education programme.

Courses of Action:

I) Population education programme should be included in the college curriculum.

II) Orientation programme should be conducted for teachers on population education.

A	Only I follows
B	Only II follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Both I and II follow

Question 13 Explanation:

Clearly, the statement stresses on teachers' lack of awareness and knowledge in population education and as such the best remedy would be to guide them in this field through orientation programmes.
So, only course II follows.

Question 14

Statement: A recent study shows that children below five die in the cities of the developing countries mainly from diarrhoea and parasitic intestinal worms.

Courses of Action:

I) Governments of the developing countries should take adequate measures to improve the hygienic conditions in the cities.

II) Children below five years in the cities of the developing countries need to be kept under periodic medical check-up.

A	Only I follows
B	Only II follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Both I and II follow

Question 14 Explanation:

Clearly, the two diseases mentioned are caused by unhygienic conditions.
So, improving the hygienic conditions is a step towards their eradication.
Also, periodic medical check-up will help timely detection of the disease and hence a proper treatment. So, both I and II follow

Question 15

Statement: The car dealer found that there was a tremendous response for the new XYZ's car-booking with long queues of people complaining about the duration of business hours and arrangements.

Courses of Action:

I) People should make their arrangement of lunch and snacks while going for car XYZ's booking and be ready to spend several hours.

II) Arrangement should be made for more booking desks and increased business hours to serve more people in less time.

A	Only I follows
B	Only II follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Both I and II follow

Question 15 Explanation:

Seeing the tremendous response, the dealer must make suitable arrangements and deploy more personnel to take care of customers so that they don't have to wait excessively long for booking.
So, only course II follows

Question 16

Statement: The availability of imported fruits has increased in the indigenous market and so the demand for indigenous fruits has been decreased.

Courses of Action:

I) To help the indigenous producers of fruits, the Government should impose high import duty on these fruits, even if these are not of good quality.

II) The fruit vendors should stop selling imported fruits. So that the demand for indigenous fruits would be increased.

A	Only I follows
B	Only II follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Both I and II follow

Question 16 Explanation:

The ideas suggested in both I and II represent unfair means to cut competition. The correct way would be to devise methods and techniques such that the indigenous producers could produce better quality fruits and make them available in the market at prices comparable with those of the imported ones.
Hence, neither I nor II follows

Question 17

Statement: The Union Ministry of Tourism and Civil Aviation has fixed an annual target of Rs 10,000 crores by way of tourism earnings towards the end of the current decade.

Courses of Action:

I) There is no need of development of further new tourist spots to meet the target.

II) The Ministry should evolve attractive packages to woo the foreign tourists to meet the target.

A	Only I follows
B	Only II follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Both I and II follow

Question 17 Explanation:

Such a high target can be achieved only by a drastic increase in the number of tourists.
The tourists can be attracted only by developing spots worth seeing and providing attractive packages which seem to be a good value-for-money offer to foreign tourists. So, only II follows.

Question 18

Statement: There has been a significant drop in the water level of all the lakes supplying water to the city.

Courses of Action:

I) The water supply authority should impose a partial cut in supply to tackle the situation.

II) The government should appeal to all the residents through mass media for minimal use of water.

A	Only I follows
B	Only II follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Both I and II follow

Question 18 Explanation:

The situation can be tackled by periodic cuts in supply, and urging people to conserve water.
So both the courses follow.

Question 19

Statement: The police department has come under a cloud with recent revelations that at least two senior police officials are suspected to have been involved in the illegal sale of a large quantity of weapons from the state police armoury.

Courses of Action:

I) A thorough investigation should be ordered by the State Government to bring out all those who are involved into the illegal sale of arms.

II) State police armoury should be kept under Central Government's control.

A	Only I follows
B	Only II follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Both I and II follow

Question 19 Explanation:

Clearly, the situation demands finding out the real culprits first. So, only I follow

Question 20

Statement: Financial stringency prevented the State Government from paying salaries to its employees since April this year.

Courses of Action:

I) The State Government should immediately curtail the staff strength at least by 30%.

II) The State Government should reduce wasteful expenditure and arrange to pay the salaries of its employees.

A	Only I follows
B	Only II follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Both I and II follow

Question 20 Explanation:

Clearly, curtailing of the staff strength will only increase the panic and discontent, and the satisfaction of the employees is a must.
So, the Government should arrange for payment of wages. Thus, only course II follows.

Question 21

Statement: The cinema halls are incurring heavy losses these days as people prefer to watch movies in home on TV than to visit cinema halls.

Courses of Action:

I) The cinema halls should be demolished and residential multi-storey buildings should be constructed there.

II) The cinema halls should be converted into shopping malls.

A	Only I follows
B	Only II follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Both I and II follow

Question 21 Explanation:

Doing away with cinema halls is no solution. Hence, none of the courses follows.
Instead, certain incentives and promotional schemes should be awarded to cinema hall owners so that they could manage to draw in crowds.

Question 22

Statement: Duty free technology parks where foreign firms can manufacture electronic hardware components are proposed to be established at various places in the country.

Courses of Action:

I) Government should immediately implement the proposal to augment the foreign currency reserve by exporting the products.

II) Government should not implement the proposal as it will hinder indigenous production of hardware components.

A	Only I follows
B	Only II follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Both I and II follow

Question 22 Explanation:

The step discussed in the statement would surely give a boost to hardware industry and help our country to stand apart in this field. Thus, only I follows.

Question 23

Statement: Youngsters are often found staring at obscene posters.

Courses of Action:

I) Children should be punished and penalized if they are found doing so.

II) Any display of such material should be banned.

A	Only I follows
B	Only II follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Both I and II follow

Question 23 Explanation:

Bad things attract more and punishment after the act has been committed is no remedy.
The act should be prevented. So, only course II follows.

Question 24

Statement: One of the problems facing the food processing industry is the irregular supply of raw material. The producers of raw material are not getting a reasonable price.

Courses of Action:

I) The government should regulate the supply of raw material to other industries also.

II) The government should announce an attractive package to ensure regular supply of raw material for food processing industry

A	Only I follows
B	Only II follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Both I and II follow

Question 24 Explanation:

Clearly, to remedy the problem of food processing industry, a regular supply of raw material should be ensured. So, course II follows.

Question 25

Statement: The Committee has criticized the Institute for its failure to implement a dozen of regular programmes despite an increase in the staff strength and not drawing up a firm action plan for studies and research.

Courses of Action:

I) The broad objectives of the Institute should be redefined to implement a practical action plan.

II) The Institute should give a report on reasons for not having implemented the planned programmes.

A	Only I follows
B	Either I or II
C	follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Both I and II follow

Question 25 Explanation:

The problem is that despite an increase in staff strength, the Institute has failed in its objective of implementing its plan.
So, either there should be reasons for the lackening or the plans are a failure and must be revised for practical implementation.
Thus, both the courses follow.

Question 26

Statement: India has been continuously experiencing military threats from its neighbouring countries.

Courses of Action:

I) India should engage into an all out war to stop the nagging threats.

II) India should get the neighbours into a serious dialogue to reduce the tension at its borders.

A	Only I follows
B	Only II follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Both I and II follow

Question 26 Explanation:

Clearly, war is the last resort. First, peaceful talks and negotiations should be indulged in, to settle the issues of dispute. So, only course II follows.

Question 27

Statement: As many as ten coaches of a passenger train have derailed and blocked both pairs of the railway tracks.

Courses of Action:

I) The railway authorities should immediately send men and equipment to the spot to clear the railway tracks.

II) All the trains running in both the directions should be diverted to other routes.

A	Only I follows
B	Only II follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Both I and II follow

Question 27 Explanation:

The situation demands first diverting other trains to different routes so as to avert any accident, and then clearing the tracks as soon as possible. Thus, both the courses follow.

Question 28

Statement: A large number of people visiting India from country X have been tested positive for carrying viruses of a killer disease.

Courses of Action:

I) The government of India should immediately put a complete ban on people coming to India from country X including those Indians who are settled in country X.

II) The government of India should immediately set up detection centres at all its airports and seaports to identify and quarantine those who are tested positive.

A	Only I follows
B	Only II follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Both I and II follow

Question 28 Explanation:

Clearly, the non-infected persons should not be debarred from visiting India. So, only course II follows.

Question 29

Statement: There has been less than forty percent voter turnout in the recent assembly elections.

Courses of Action:

I) The election commission should cancel the entire election process as the votes cast are not adequate to represent people.

II) The election commission should take away the voting rights of those who did not exercise their rights.

A	Only I follows
B	Only II follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Both I and II follow

Question 29 Explanation:

Re-election would demand repeated expenses and following course II would reduce the voter base permanently.
Instead, awareness should be created among the people to use their right to vote effectively. So, neither I nor II follows.

Question 30

Statement: Most of the development plans develop in papers only.

Courses of Action:

I) The in-charges should be instructed to supervise the field-work regularly.

II) The supply of paper to such departments should be cut short.

A	Only I follows
B	Only II follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Neither I nor II follows
E	Both I and II follow

Question 30 Explanation:

Clearly, proper supervision alone can see the development in practice. So, only course I follows.

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Coding and Decoding

MS — Sun, 27 Aug 2017 10:54:01 +0000

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Encoding/decoding is the translation of a message that is easily understood. When you decode a message, you are extracting the meaning of that message into terms that you are able to easily understand. Decoding has both verbal and non-verbal forms through communication.

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Once you get the right answer, explanations (if any) for the same will be showcased down.
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Coding and Decoding - Question and Answers

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Question 1

A particular letter stands for another letter in letter coding. If COURSE is coded as FRXUVH how is RACE would be coded?

A	HFDU
B	UDFG
C	UDFH
D	UDHF

Question 1 Explanation:

In the given code, each letter is moved three steps forward than the corresponding letter in the word. So R is coded as U, A as D, C as F, E as H. Hence (3) is the answer.

Question 2

When numerical values are assigned to words. Eg: If in a certain code ROPE is coded as 6821, CHAIR is coded as 73456 what will be the code for CRAPE?

A	73456
B	76421
C	77246
D	77123
E	None of these

Question 2 Explanation:

Clearly, in the given code, the alphabets are coded as follows.
R O P E C H A I
6 8 2 1 7 3 4 5
So CRAPE is coded as 76421, So the answer is (2)

Question 3

In a certain code 3456 is coded as ROPE & 15546 is coded as APPLE. Then how is 54613 coded?

A	RPPEO
B	ROPEA
C	POEAR
D	POEAR
E	None of these

Question 3 Explanation:

Clearly in the given figures, the numbers are coded as follows.
3 4 5 6 1 4.
R O P E A L.
So 54613 is coded as POEAR. The answer is (3)

Question 4

If tee see pee means drink fruit juice, see kee lee means juice is sweet, and lee ree mee means he is intelligent, which word in that language means sweet?

A	see
B	kee
C	lee
D	pee
E	tee

Question 4 Explanation:

In the first and the second statements the common word is juice and the common code word is see. So see means juice. In the second and the third statements, the common word is ‘is’ and the common code is lee. So lee means is. Thus in the second statement, the remaining word sweet is coded as kee. Hence the answer is (2).

Question 5

If in a certain code language, 851 means good sweet fruit; 783 means good red rose and 341 means rose and fruit which of the following digits stands for sweet in that language?

A	8
B	5
C	1
D	3

Question 5 Explanation:

In the first and the second statements, the common code digit is 8 and the common word is good. So 8 stands for good. In the first and the third statements, the common code digit is 1 and the common word is fruit. So 1 stands for fruit. Therefore in the first statement, 5 stands for sweet. Hence the answer is (2).

Question 6

If in a certain language FLOWER is written as EKNVDQ, what will be written as GNTRD?

A	HEOUS
B	HOUES
C	HUOSE
D	HOUSE
E	None of these

Question 6 Explanation:

Each letter of the word is one step ahead of the corresponding letter of the code. E K N V D Q G N T R D F L O W E R H O U S E Thus HOUSE is written as GNTRD, So the answer is (4)

Question 7

In a certain code ‘TOME’ is written as ' @ $ * ? ' and ARE is written as ‘ • £ ? ’ How can ‘REMOTE’ be written in that code?

A	£ ? • $ @ ?
B	@ ? * $ @ ?
C	£ ? * $ @ ?
D	Cannot be determined
E	None of these

Question 7 Explanation:

From the data we have
T - @
O - $
M - *
E - ?
A - • R - £
E - ?
Hence REMOTE is coded as £ ? * $ @ ? So (3) is the answer

Question 8

If in a certain language CHAMPION is coded as HCMAIPNO, how can NEGATIVE be coded in that code?

A	ENAGITEV
B	NEAGVEIT
C	MGAETVIEf
D	EGAITEVN
E	NEGATIEV

Question 8 Explanation:

(1) In the code each of the two letters are reversed in arrangement.

Question 9

In a certain language KINDLE is coded as ELDNIK, how can EXOTIC be coded in that code?

A	EXOTLC
B	CXOTIE
C	COXITE
D	COXITE
E	EOXITC

Question 9 Explanation:

In the code the arrangement of the letters in the word is wholly reversed.

Question 10

If in a certain language GAMBLE is coded as FBLCKF, how can FLOWER be coded in that language?

A	GKPVFQ
B	EMNXDS
C	GMPVDS
D	HNQYGT
E	EKNVDQ

Question 10 Explanation:

The letters preceding the first, third and fifth letters of the given word and those succeeding the second, fourth and last letters of the word in the alphabet form the code.

Question 11

If in a certain language FASHION is coded as FOIHSAN, how can PROBLEM be coded in that code?

A	ROBLEMP
B	PLEBRUM
C	PRBOELM
D	RPBOELM
E	PELBORM

Question 11 Explanation:

The 1st and the last letters of the word are kept as such in the code and all other letters in between them are wholly reversed.

Question 12

If FRIEND is coded as HUMJTK, how can CANDLE be written in that code?f

A	EDRIRL
B	DCQHQK
C	ESJFME
D	FYOBOC
E	DEQJQM

Question 12 Explanation:

In the code, the first letter is the second alphabet, the second letter is the third alphabet, the third letter is the fourth alphabet and so on after the corresponding letter in the word.

Question 13

If in a certain code, TWENTY is written as 863985 and ELEVEN is written as 323039, how can TWELVE be written in that code?

A	863203
B	863584
C	863903
D	863903
E	None of these

Question 13 Explanation:

The letters are coded accordingly T as 8, W as 6, E as 3, L as 2, and V as 0. So TWELVE is coded as 863203.

Question 14

If PALE is coded as 2134, EARTH is coded as 41590, how can is PEARL be coded in that language?

A	29530
B	24153
C	25413
D	25430
E	None of these

Question 14 Explanation:

The letters are coded accordingly P as 2, E as 4, A as 1, R as 5 and L as 3. So PEARL is coded as 24153.

Question 15

If ROSE is coded as 6821, CHAIR is coded as 73456 and PREACH is coded as 961473, what will be the code for SEARCH?

A	246173
B	214673
C	214763
D	216473
E	None of these

Question 15 Explanation:

The letters are coded accordingly S as 2, E as 1, A as 4, R as 6, C as 7 and H as 3. i.e., 214673

Question 16

In a certain code nee tim see means how are you ; ble nee see means where are you. What will be the code for where?

A	nee
B	tim
C	see
D	Cannot be determined
E	None of these

Question 16 Explanation:

In the first and the second statements the common words are ‘are’ and ‘you’ and the common code words are nee and see. So nee and see means are and you. In the second statement the remaining code ble means where.

Question 17

In a certain code language pit nae tom means apple is green ; nae ho tap means green and white and ho tom ka means shirt is white. Which of the following represents apple in that language?

A	nae
B	tom
C	pit
D	ho
E	ka

Question 17 Explanation:

In the first and the second statements, the common code word is nae and the common word is green. So nae means green. In the first and the third statements, the common code word is tom and the common word is is so tom means is. Therefore in the first statement pit means apple.

Question 18

If nitco sco tingo stands for softer than flower, tingo rho mst stands for sweet flower fragrance and mst sco tmp stands for sweet than smile what would fragrance stand for?

A	rho
B	mst
C	tmp
D	sco
E	None of these

Question 18 Explanation:

In the first and the second statements the common code is tingo and the common word is flower. So tingo means flower. In the second and the third statements, the common code is mst and the common word is sweet. So mst means sweet. Therefore in the second statement, rho means fragranee.

Question 19

In a certain code language, 743 means Mangoes are good, 657 means Eat good food, and 934 means Mangoes are ripe. Which digit means ripe in that language?

A	5
B	4
C	9
D	7
E	Cannot be determined

Question 19 Explanation:

In the first and the third statements, the common code digits are 4 and 3 ; and the common words are mangoes and are. So 4 and 3 are the codes for mangoes and are. Thus in the third statement 9 means ripe.

Question 20

In a certain code, 247 means spread red carpet, 256 means dust one carpet and 234 means one red carpet which digit in that code means dust?

A	2
B	3
C	5
D	6
E	Cannot say

Question 20 Explanation:

In the first and the second statements, the common code digit is 2 and the common word is carpet. So 2 means carpet. In the second and the third statements, the common code digit is 6 and the common word is one. So 6 means one. Therefore in the second statement, 5 means dust.

Question 21

A	4
B	7
C	9
D	8
E	None of these

Question 21 Explanation:

In the first and the second statements, the common code digit is 4 and the common word is good. So 4 stands for good. In the second and the third statements, the common code digit is 7 and the common word is pictures. So 7 stands for pictures. Thus in the second statement 8 stands for see.

Question 22

In a certain code 253 means books are old, 546 means man is old and 378 means buy good books. What stands for ‘are’ in that code?

A	2
B	4
C	5
D	6
E	9

Question 22 Explanation:

In the first and the second statements, the common code digit is 5 and the common word is old, so 5 stands for old. In the first and third statements, the common code digit is 3 and the common word is books so 3 stands for books. Thus in the first statement, 2 stands for are.

Question 23

In a certain code language TSSNOFFQ is written as STRONGER then GQFDENN will be written as

A	DOMEERF
B	FREEDOM
C	FREEDOM
D	FREEDMO
E	None of these

Question 23 Explanation:

The first letter is moved one step backward and second is moved one step forward the third letter is moved one step backward, the fourth letter one step forward and so on. So the answer is (3)

Question 24

If FULFNHW is the code for CRICKET, EULGH will be coded as

A	PRIDE
B	BRIDE
C	BLADE
D	BLIND
E	None of these

Question 24 Explanation:

Each letter of the word is three steps ahead of the corresponding letter of the code.

Question 25

If in a certain language REMOTE is coded as ROTEME, which word would be coded as PNIICC?

A	NPIICC
B	PICCIN
C	PINCIC
D	PICNIC
E	PICINC

Question 25 Explanation:

The groups of second and third letters and fourth and fifth letters in the word interchange places in the code.

Question 26

163542

A	XTJCNZ
B	TXJCNZ
C	XTJCZN
D	XTCJNZ
E	None of these

Question 26 Explanation:

As given 1 is coded as X, 6 is coded as T, 3 is coded as J, 5 is coded as C, 4 is coded as N and 2 is coded as Z. So 163542 is coded as XTJCNZ.

Question 27

925873

A	ZQCFOJ
B	QZCFOJ
C	QZCOFJ
D	QZCFJO
E	None of these

Question 27 Explanation:

As given 9 is coded as Q, 2 as Z, 5 as C, 8 as F, 7 as O and 3 as J. So 925873 is coded as QZCFOJ

Question 28

741568

A	ONCXTF
B	NOXCFT
C	ONCFCT
D	ONXCTF
E	None of these

Question 28 Explanation:

7 is coded as O, 4 as N, 1 as X, 5 as C, 6 as T and 8 as F. So 741568 is coded as ONXCTF.

Question 29

Find the missing terms: FRIEND : FPIBNZ : : MENTOR : _________.

A	MCNOQN
B	MCNQON
C	MNCNOQ
D	CMQNNO

Question 29 Explanation:

F R I E N D +0 -2 +0 -3 +0 -4 F P I B N Z Similarly, M E N T O R +0 -2 +0 -3 +0 -4 M C N Q O N

Question 30

Which code should be replaced in the question mark? MILD: NKOH: GATE:?

A	AIBVJ
B	BHCWI
C	CKDXK
D	DICWA

Question 30 Explanation:

Here, letters are coded by skipping letters in alphabetical order, I.e.., M = N (no skipping) I = (j) K (letters in the bracket are one\\'s skipped)L = (mn) OD = (efg) H The skipping pattern is -1, -2 and -3 Therefore , G A T E will be coded as H C W I.

Question 31

If Sand is coded as Brick, Brick as House, House as Temple, Temple as Palace then where do you worship?

A	Palace
B	Temple
C	Brick
D	House
E	None of these

Question 32

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word GUARDIAN each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?

A	One
B	Two
C	Three
D	More than three

Question 33

In a certain code language K is written as 11 and KEEP is written as 37. How will the word DRAFT be written in that code language?

A	45
B	49
C	46
D	48

Question 33 Explanation:

K = 11 Position Number in English alphabet
E= 5 and P = 16
11+5+5+16 = 37
There fore, DRAFT =4 + 18 + 1 + 6 + 20 = 49

Question 34

If in code of alphabet AT = 20, BAT = 40 then CAT = ?

A	34
B	56
C	40
D	60

Question 34 Explanation:

By considering A=1 B=2 ............ T=20 ........ Z = 26
We can say that
A × T = 1 × 20 = 20
B × A × T = 2 × 1 × 20 = 40
C × A × T = 3 × 1 × 20 = 60

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Cause and Effect

MS — Sat, 26 Aug 2017 05:30:16 +0000

[vc_row][vc_column][vc_toggle title=”Explanation / Important formulas:” el_id=”1481454282462-60885454-0285″]

Below in each of the questions are given two statements I and II. These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statements. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements

Mark answer

(A) If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
(B) If statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
(C) If both the statements I and II are independent causes
(D) If both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes
(E) If both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause

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Click on start to start taking the test.
Click on the option (A, B, C or D) to figure out the right answer.
You can answer multiple times till you get the right answer.
Once you get the right answer, explanations (if any) for the same will be showcased down.
On click of list, you get to see total no of questions, no of questions you answered and no of questions pending to answer.
On click of question number you will go to that particular question.
On click of END your test will end.
On click of ‘Get Results’ you will get to see correct answer for each questions.

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Cause and Effect - Question and Answers

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Question 1

Statements:

I) Standard of living among the middle class society is constantly going up since part of few years

II) Indian Economy is observing remarkable growth

A	Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
B	Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
C	Both the statements I and II are independent causes
D	Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes
E	Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause

Question 1 Explanation:

Since the standard of living among the middle class society is constantly going up so Indian Economy is observing remarkable growth

Question 2

Statements:

I) The meteorological Department has issued a statement mentioning deficient rainfall during monsoon in many parts of the country

II) The Government has lowered the revised estimated GDP growth from the level of earlier estimates

A	Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
B	Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
C	Both the statements I and II are independent causes
D	Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes
E	Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause

Question 2 Explanation:

Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes

Question 3

Statements:

I) The staff of Airport Authorities called off the strike they were observing in protest against privatization

II) The staff of Airport Authorities went on strike anticipating a threat to their jobs

A	Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
B	Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
C	Both the statements I and II are independent causes
D	Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes
E	Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

Question 3 Explanation:

Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes

Question 4

Statements:

I) A huge truck overturned on the middle of the road last night

II) The police had cordoned of entire area in the locality this morning for half of the day

A	Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
B	Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
C	Both the statements I and II are independent causes
D	Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes
E	Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause

Question 4 Explanation:

Since a huge truck overturned on the middle of the road last night
so, the police had cordoned off the entire area in the locality last morning for half of the day

Question 5

Statements:

I) Importance of Yoga and exercise is being realized by all sections of the society

II) There is an increasing awareness about health in the society particularly among middle ages group of people

A	Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
B	Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
C	Both the statements I and II are independent causes
D	Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes
E	Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause

Question 5 Explanation:

As the awareness about health in the society is increasing particularly among middle-aged group of people, the importance of Yoga and exercise is being realized by all sections of the society

Question 6

Statements:

I) The Government has decided to hold a single entrance test for admission to all the medical colleges in India

II) The State Government has debarred students from other States to apply for the seats in the medical colleges in the State

A	Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
B	Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
C	Both the statements I and II are independent causes
D	Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes
E	Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause

Question 6 Explanation:

Both the statements are effects of some common cause

Question 7

Statements:

I) Large number of Primary Schools in the rural areas is run by only one teacher

II) There has been a huge dropout from the primary schools in rural areas

A	Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
B	Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
C	Both the statements I and II are independent causes
D	Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes
E	Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause

Question 7 Explanation:

Since large numbers of primary schools in the rural areas are run by only one teacher so there has been a huge dropout from the Primary Schools in rural areas

Question 8

Statements:

I) The employees of the biggest bank in the country have given an indefinite strike call starting from the third of the next month

II) The employees of the Central Government have withdrawn their week long demonstrations

A	Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
B	Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
C	Both the statements I and II are independent causes
D	Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes
E	Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause

Question 8 Explanation:

Both the statements are effects of the different causes

Question 9

Statements:

I) Police resorted to lathi-charge to disperse the unlawful gathering of large number of people

II) The citizens' forum called a general strike in protest against the police atrocities

A	Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
B	Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
C	Both the statements I and II are independent causes
D	Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes
E	Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause

Question 9 Explanation:

As, police resorted to lathi-charge to disperse the unlawful gathering of large number of people, the citizens forum called a general strike against the police atrocities

Question 10

Statements:

I) The farmers have decided against selling their Kharif crops to the Government agencies

II) The Government has reduced the procurement price of Kharif crops starting from the last month to the next six months

A	Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
B	Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
C	Both the statements I and II are independent causes
D	Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes
E	Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause

Question 10 Explanation:

Since the government has reduced the procurement price of Kharif crops starting from the last months to the next six months,
therefore, the farmers have decided against selling their Kharif crops to the Government agencies.

Question 11

Statements:

I) Many people visited the religious place during the week-end

II) Few people visited the religious place during the week days

A	Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
B	Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
C	Both the statements I and II are independent causes
D	Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes
E	Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause

Question 11 Explanation:

Both the statements I and II are the effects of some common cause

Question 12

Statements:

I) All the schools in the area had to be kept closed for most part of the week

II) Many parents have withdrawn their children from the local schools

A	Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
B	Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
C	Both the statements I and II are independent causes
D	Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes
E	Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause

Question 12 Explanation:

Both the statements are effects of some common cause

Question 13

Statements:

I) The literacy rate in the district has been increasing for the last four years

II) The district administration has conducted extensive training programme for the workers involved in the literacy drive

A	Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
B	Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
C	Both the statements I and II are independent causes
D	Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes
E	Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause

Question 13 Explanation:

As the district administration has conducted extensive training programme for the workers involved in the literacy drive
therefore, the literacy in the district has been increasing for the last four years.

Question 14

Statements:

I) The car manufacturing companies have recently increased the prices of mid-sized cars

II) The Government recently increased the duty on mid-sized cars

A	Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
B	Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
C	Both the statements I and II are independent causes
D	Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes
E	Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause

Question 14 Explanation:

Since the government has recently increased the duty on mid-sized cars,
therefore, the car manufacturing companies have recently increased the prices of mid-sized cars

Question 15

Statements:

I) The university officers have decided to conduct last examination every year in March/April in order to announce the result at proper time

II) In past the result was declared late by the University due to the lack of number of examiners

A	Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
B	Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
C	Both the statements I and II are independent causes
D	Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes
E	Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause

Question 15 Explanation:

Since in the past the result was declared late by university,
it has decided to conduct the examination in March/April in order to announce the result at proper time

Question 16

Statements:

I) The State Government has announced special tax package for the new industries to be set-up in the State

II) Last year the State Government had hiked the taxes for all industrial activities in the State

A	Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
B	Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
C	Both the statements I and II are independent causes
D	Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes
E	Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause

Question 16 Explanation:

Because due to hike of taxes last year the State Government has announced special tax package the new industries to be set up in the State

Question 17

Statements:

I) The government has allowed private airline companies in India to operate to overseas destinations

II) The national air carrier has increased its flights to overseas destinations

A	Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
B	Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
C	Both the statements I and II are independent causes
D	Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes
E	Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause

Question 17 Explanation:

Since the Government has allowed private airline companies in India to operate to overseas,
so the national air carrier has increased its flights to overseas destinations

Question 18

Statements:

I) The Government has imported large quantities of sugar as per trade agreement with other countries

II) The prices of sugar in the domestic market have fallen sharply in the recent months

A	Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
B	Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
C	Both the statements I and II are independent causes
D	Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes
E	Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause

Question 18 Explanation:

Since the Government has imported large quantities of sugar as per trade agreement with other countries,
therefore, the prices of the sugar in the domestic market have fallen sharply in the recent months

Question 19

Statements:

I) Many people in the area are reported to be suffering from Malaria

II) Private Medical Practitioners in the area have decided to close their clinics for few days

A	Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
B	Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
C	Both the statements I and II are independent causes
D	Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes
E	Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause

Question 19 Explanation:

Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes
Because spreading malaria or to be suffering from malaria may be due to mosquitoes or dirtiness
But the decision of private medical practitioners to close the clinics may be due to other causes

Question 20

Statements:

I) Rural and semi-urban areas in the country have been suffering due to load-shedding for quite some time

II) If the Government is not able to overcome the power crisis, load-shedding will be extended even to the urban areas

A	Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
B	Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
C	Both the statements I and II are independent causes
D	Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes
E	Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause

Question 20 Explanation:

If certain preventive measures are practiced at the rural and semi urban areas the problem will be solved
But if the same is not practiced even at the cities the problem may roll into the city also, so the two effects are of some common cause

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Blood Relations

MS — Fri, 25 Aug 2017 05:50:18 +0000

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The questions in this section is the information about the members of the family in the question, Based on that information we need to find out the relationship between particular member of the family. Generally the question deals with hierarchical structure which is based on seven generation.

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Blood Relations - Question and Answers

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Question 1

Which of the following shows the relation that C is the granddaughter of E? The above question is based on the following information:

M % N means M is the son of N.
M @ N means M is the sister of N.
M $ N means M is the father of N.

A	C % B $ F $ E
B	B $ F $ E % C
C	C @ B % F % E
D	E % B $ F $ C

Question 1 Explanation:

C @ B → C is the sister of B
B % F → B is the son of F
Hence, → C is the daughter of F
F % E → F is the son of E
Hence, → C is the granddaughter of E.

Question 2

Which of the following means that N is the maternal uncle of M?

A	N β P - L + E - M
B	N - Y + A β M
C	M - Y * P - N
D	N β C + F * M

Question 2 Explanation:

• N β P → N is the brother of P
• P - L → P is the sister of L
• L + E → L is the mother of E
• E - M → E is the sister of M.
Hence, L is the mother of M, P is the maternal aunt of M and N is the maternal uncle of M.

Question 3

Pointing to a photograph of a boy Suresh said, "He is the son of the only son of my mother." How is Suresh related to that boy?

A	Brother
B	Uncle
C	Cousin
D	Father

Question 3 Explanation:

The boy in the photograph is the only son of the son of Suresh's mother i.e., the son of Suresh. Hence, Suresh is the father of boy.

Question 4

If A + B means A is the mother of B; A - B means A is the brother B; A % B means A is the father of B and A x B means A is the sister of B, which of the following shows that P is the maternal uncle of Q?

A	Q - N + M x P
B	P + S x N - Q
C	P - M + N x Q
D	Q - S % P

Question 4 Explanation:

• P - M → P is the brother of M
• M + N → M is the mother of N
• N x Q → N is the sister of Q
Therefore, P is the maternal uncle of Q.

Question 5

If A is the brother of B; B is the sister of C; and C is the father of D, how D is related to A?

A	Brother
B	Sister
C	Nephew
D	Cannot be determined

Question 5 Explanation:

If D is Male, the answer is Nephew.
If D is Female, the answer is Niece.
As the sex of D is not known, hence, the relation between D and A cannot be determined.
Note: Niece - A daughter of one's brother or sister, or of one's brother-in-law or sister-in-law.
Nephew - A son of one's brother or sister, or of one's brother-in-law or sister-in-law

Question 6

If A + B means A is the brother of B; A - B means A is the sister of B and A x B means A is the father of B. Which of the following means that C is the son of M?

A	M - N x C + F
B	F - C + N x M
C	N + M - F x C
D	M x N - C + F

Question 6 Explanation:

M x N → M is the father of N
N - C → N is the sister of C
and C + F → C is the brother of F
Hence, M is the father of C or C is the son of M

Question 7

Introducing a boy, a girl said, "He is the son of the daughter of the father of my uncle." How is the boy related to the girl?

A	Brother
B	Nephew
C	Uncle
D	Son-in-law

Question 7 Explanation:

The father of the boy's uncle → the grandfather of the boy and daughter of the grandfather → sister of father

Question 8

A is the son of C; C and Q are sisters; Z is the mother of Q and P is the son of Z. Which of the following statements is true?

A	P and A are cousins
B	P is the maternal uncle of A
C	Q is the maternal grandfather of A
D	C and P are sisters

Question 8 Explanation:

C and Q are sisters and A is the son of C.
Hence, C is the mother of A or Z is the mother Q.
Hence, Z is the maternal grandmother of A. P is the son of Z. Hence, P is the maternal uncle of A

Question 9

M is the father of N who is the son of V. In order to know the relation of M to P, which of the statement/statements is/are necessary?

P is the brother of V
The daughter of N is the granddaughter of V

A	Only (1)
B	Only (2)
C	Either (1) or (2)
D	(1) and (2) both

Question 9 Explanation:

M is the father of N and N is the son of V. Hence, V is the mother of N. From (1), P is the brother of V Therefore, M is the brother-in-law of P because V is the wife of M.
From (2), the daughter of N, is the granddaughter of V.
From this we do not get any relation of M to P.

Question 10

If X + Y means X is the daughter of Y; X - Y means X is the brother of Y; X % Y means X is the father of Y and X x Y means X is the sister of Y. Which of the following means I is the niece of J?

A	J - N % C x I
B	I x C - N % J
C	J + M x C % I
D	I x C + N - J

Question 10 Explanation:

I x C → I is the sister of C
C + N → C is the daughter of N
and N - J → N is the brother of I
Hence, I is niece of J

Question 11

If M x N means M is the daughter of N; M + N means M is the father of N; M % N means M is the mother of N and M - N means M is the brother of N then P % Q + R - T x K indicates which relation of P to K?

A	Daughter-in-law
B	Sister-in-law
C	Aunt
D	None of these

Question 11 Explanation:

P % Q → P is the mother of Q
Q + R → Q is the father of R
R - T → R is the brother of T
Hence, → Q is the father of T
T x K → T is the daughter of K
Hence, → Q is the husband of K
Therefore, P is the mother-in-law of K

Question 12

If P + Q means P is the brother of Q; P x Q means P is the father of Q and P - Q means P is the sister of Q, which of the following relations shows that I is the niece of K?

A	K + Y + Z – I
B	K + Y x I - Z
C	Z - I x Y + K
D	K x Y + I - Z

Question 12 Explanation:

K + Y → K is the brother of Y Y x I → Y is the father of I
Hence, → K is the uncle of I
and I - Z → I is the sister of Z
Hence, → I is the niece of K

Question 13

Pointing towards a girl, Abhisek says, "This girl is the daughter of only a child of my father." What is the relation of Abhisek's wife to that girl?

A	Daughter
B	Mother
C	Aunt
D	Sister

Question 13 Explanation:

Only the child of my father means 'Abhisek' himself.
This means the girl is the daughter od Abhisek.
Hence, Abhisek's wife is the mother of the girl.

Question 14

If A $ B means B is the father of A; A # B means B is the mother of A; A * B means B is the sister of A and A @ B means B is the husband of A, which of the following indicates that N is the grandmother of P?

A	P * Q # M $ N
B	P @ Q $ M # N
C	P # Q $ N * M
D	None of these

Question 14 Explanation:

In option a, N is grandfather of P.
In option b, N is grandmother of Q whose wife is P
Hence N cannot be the grandmother of P
In option c, N is grandfather of P
So option d is correct

Question 15

Anupam said to a lady sitting in a car, "The only daughter of the brother of my wife is the sister-in-law of the brother of your sister." How the husband of the lady is related to Anupam?

A	Maternal uncle
B	Uncle
C	Father
D	Son-in-law

Question 15 Explanation:

Anupam's son-in-law is the brother of the lady who was sitting in the car.
Hence, the husband is also the son-in-law of Anupam.

Question 16

A $ B means A is the father of B; A # B means A is the sister of B; A * B means A is the daughter of B and A @ B means A is the brother of B. Which of the following indicates that M is the wife of Q?

A	Q $ R # T @ M
B	Q $ R @ T # M
C	Q $ R * T # M
D	Q $ R @ T * M

Question 16 Explanation:

Q $ R → Q is the father of R
R @ T → R is the brother of T
Hence, → Q is the father of T
T * M → T is the daughter of M
Hence, → M is the mother of T
Hence, M is the wife of Q

Question 17

If A $ B means A is the brother of B; B * C means B is the son of C; C @ D means C is the wife of D and A # D means A is the son of D, how C is related to A?

A	Maternal grandmother
B	Maternal aunt
C	Aunt
D	Mother

Question 17 Explanation:

A $ B → A is the brother of B
B * C → B is the son of C
Hence, → A is the son of C
C @ D → C is the wife of D
Hence, → C is the mother of A

Question 18

Pointing to a girl Sandeep said, "She is the daughter of the only sister of my father." How is sandeep related to the girl?

A	Uncle
B	Cousin
C	Father
D	Grandfather

Question 18 Explanation:

The girl is the daughter of the sister of Sandeep's father.
Hence, the girl is the cousin or Sandeep is the cousin of the girl.

Question 19

Pointing to a boy in the photograph Reena said, "He is the only son of the only child of my grandfather." How Reena is related to that boy?

A	Mother
B	Sister
C	Aunt
D	Cannot be determined

Question 19 Explanation:

The boy in the photograph is the only son of Reena's grandfather's only son; i.e., the boy is the only son of Reena's father.
Hence, the boy is the brother of Reena or Reena is the sister of the boy.

Question 20

Amit said - "This girl is the wife of the grandson of my mother". How is Amit related to the girl?

A	Brother
B	Grandfather
C	Husband
D	Father-in-law

Question 20 Explanation:

The girl is the wife of grandson of Amit's mother i.e., the girl is the wife of son of Amit.
Hence, Amit is the father-in-law of the girl.

Question 21

A and B are children of D. Who is the father of A? To answer this question which of the statements (1) and (2) is necessary?

C is the brother of A and the son of E.
F is the mother B.

A	Only (1)
B	Only (2)
C	Either (1) or (2)
D	(1) and (2) both

Question 21 Explanation:

A and B are children of D.
From (1), C is the brother B and son of E.
Since, the sex of D and E are not known. Hence (1) is not sufficient to answer the question.
From (2). F is the mother of B. Hence, F is also the mother of A. Hence D is the father of A.
Thus, (2) is sufficient to answer the question

Question 22

Pointing towards a man, a woman said, "His mother is the only daughter of my mother." How is the woman related to the man?

A	Mother
B	Grandmother
C	Sister
D	Daughter

Question 22 Explanation:

Only daughter of my mother → myself.
Hence, the woman is the mother of the man.

Question 23

Introducing Sonia, Aamir says, "She is the wife of only nephew of only brother of my mother." How Sonia is related to Aamir?

A	Wife
B	Sister
C	Sister-in-law
D	Data is inadequate

Question 23 Explanation:

Brother of mother means maternal uncle.
Hence only nephew of Aamir's maternal uncle means Aamir himself.
Therefore Sonia is the wife of Aamir

Question 24

Pointing to a person, Deepak said, "His only brother is the father of my daughter's father". How is the person related to Deepak?

A	Father
B	Grandfather
C	Uncle
D	Brother-in-law

Question 24 Explanation:

Father of Deepak's daughter's father → Deepak's father.
Hence, the person in the brother of Deepak's father.
Therefore, the person is the uncle of Deepak.

Question 25

P is the mother of K; K is the sister of D; D is the father of J. How is P related to J?

A	Mother
B	Grandmother
C	Aunt
D	Data inadequate

Question 25 Explanation:

P is the mother of K .
K is the sister of D.
D is the father of J.
Therefore, J is the nephew or niece of K and P is the grandmother of J

Question 26

If P $ Q means P is the father of Q; P # Q means P is the mother of Q and P * Q means P is the sister of Q, then N # L $ P * Q shows which of the relation of Q to N?

A	Grand son
B	Grand daughter
C	Nephew
D	Data is inadequate

Question 26 Explanation:

As the sex of Q is not known, hence, data is inadequate

Question 27

If P $ Q means P is the father of Q; P # Q means P is the mother of Q and P * Q means P is the sister of Q, then N # L $ P * Q shows which of the relation of Q to N?

A	Grand son
B	Grand daughter
C	Nephew
D	Data is inadequate

Question 27 Explanation:

As the sex of Q is not known, hence, data is inadequate

Question 28

If A $ B means A is the brother of B; A @ B means A is the wife of B; A # B means A is the daughter of B and A * B means A is the father of B, which of the following indicates that U is the father-in-law of P?

A	P @ Q $ T # U * W
B	P @ W $ Q * T # U
C	P @ Q $ W * T # U
D	P @ Q $ T # W * U

Question 28 Explanation:

P @ Q → P is the wife of Q ...(1)
Q $ T → Q is the brother of T ...(2)
T # U → T is the daughter of U
Hence, → Q is the son of U ...(3)
U * W → U is the father of W
From (1) and (3), U is the father-in-law of P

Question 29

A	P @ Q $ T # U * W
B	P @ W $ Q * T # U
C	P @ Q $ W * T # U
D	P @ Q $ T # W * U

Question 29 Explanation:

Question 30

Pointing to a photograph, a man said, "I have no brother or sister but that man's father is my father's son." Whose photograph was it?

A	His own
B	His Son
C	His Father
D	His Grandfater

Question 30 Explanation:

Since the person who is telling has no brother or sister, so his father son is he himself.
So the man in the photograph is his son.

Question 31

Pointing towards a person in a photograph, Anjali said, "He is the only son of the father of my sister's brother." How is that person is related to Anjali?

A	Anjali Father
B	Anjali Mother
C	Anjali Brother
D	Maternal Uncle

Question 31 Explanation:

Relation's given in the question may be analysed as follows : Sister's brother - brother;
Brother's father - father;
Father's son - brother;
So he is Anjali Brother

Question 32

Looking at the portrait of a man, Harsh said, "His mother is the wife of my father's son. I have no brothers or sisters." At whose portrait was Harsh was looking?

A	His child
B	His father
C	His grandson
D	His nephew

Question 32 Explanation:

Blood relation Analysis :
Have no brother's or sister, so Harsh is single child Wife of father's son -> His wife
His wife is mother of the person whose portrait is. So portrait is of his child

Question 33

Pointing to a girl in photograph. Amar said, "Her mother's brother is the only son of my mothers's father." How the girl's mother related to Amar?

A	Mother
B	Sister
C	Aunt
D	Grandmother

Question 33 Explanation:

Blood Relation Analysis: Only son of my Mother's father -> Amar maternal Uncle
So Girl's maternal uncle is the Amar's maternal uncle.
Thus, the Girl's mother is Amar's Aunt

Question 34

Pointing to a gentleman, Deepak said," His only brother is the father of my daughter's father." How is gentleman related to Deepak?

A	Brother
B	Father
C	Grand Father
D	Uncle

Question 34 Explanation:

Blood Relation Analysis :
Father of my daughter's Father = Deepak Father
Brother of Deepak's father = Deepak's Uncle

Question 35

If Kamal says, "Ravi's mother is the only daughter of my mother", how is Kamal related to Ravi?

A	Brother
B	Father
C	Maternal Uncle
D	Cousin

Question 35 Explanation:

Only daughter of my mother = Kamal Sister
Kamal Sister is Ravi's Mother
So Kamal is maternal uncle of Ravi

Question 36

A man pointing to a photograph says, "The lady in the photograph is my nephew's maternal grandmother." How is the lady in the photograph related to the man's sister who has no other sister?

A	Cousin
B	Sister-in-law
C	Mother
D	Mother-in-law

Question 36 Explanation:

Blood Relation Analysis :
Man's Nephew maternal grandmother will be man's mother.

Question 37

Pointing to a gentleman, Shalini said, "His only brother is the father of my son’s father." How is the gentleman related to Shalini?

A	Grandfather
B	Uncle
C	Brother
D	Father

Question 37 Explanation:

Analysis of Blood Relation:
Father of my son’s father -> Shalini's Father in law
Shalini's Father-in-law brother -> Shalini's Uncle

Question 38

A girl introduced a boy as the son of the daughter of the father of her uncle. The boy is girl's ?

A	Brother
B	Son
C	Uncle
D	Son-in-law

Question 38 Explanation:

Daughter of uncle's father — Uncle's sister — Mother
Mothers son — Brother.

Question 39

If X is the brother of the son of Y's son, how is X related to Y?

A	Son
B	Brother
C	Cousin
D	Grandson

Question 39 Explanation:

Son of Y's Son — Grandson, Brother of Y's grandson — Y's grandson

Question 40

If Rahul says, "Ravi's mother is the only daughter of my mother how is Rahul related to Ravi?

A	Grandfather
B	Father
C	Maternal uncle
D	Cannot be determined

Question 40 Explanation:

Only daughter of my mother = Rahul Sister
Rahul Sister is Ravi's Mother,
So Rahul is maternal uncle of Ravi.

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