That’s exactly what 𝗪𝗮𝗹𝗺𝗮𝗿𝘁 𝗦𝗽𝗮𝗿𝗸𝗮𝘁𝗵𝗼𝗻 2025 is offering – an opportunity that could be a game-changer.

Walmart is inviting India’s sharpest minds to participate in Sparkathon – a challenge where top performers will get a direct interview opportunity for Software Engineering Internships and Full-time roles.

Eligibility Criteria :

Education: Engineering student in India pursuing a degree in any of the technical fields

Job Location: PAN India

Registration End Date: July 14, 2025.

Click Here To Apply for Walmart Sparkathon 2025

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📚 College students: 1st, 2nd, 3rd, and 4th Year

💼 Professionals: Up to 5 years of work experience

📍 Location: Pan India

Click Here To Apply for Deep Dive – by Mercer Mettl 2025

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Overview | Flipkart Runway: Season 5 Hiring

Flipkart Runway, an exclusive Early Career Program for Women Engineers, is back for its 5th season! This program is designed to fast-track the careers of women in technology, empowering them to shape the future of the tech industry. With the theme “Her Today, Tech’s Tomorrow,” Flipkart continues its commitment to promoting a culture of innovation and inclusion, paving the way for a more diverse and dynamic ecosystem.

Eligibility & Round Details: 

• Open to all female engineers enrolled in full-time engineering programs, regardless of specialization. Eligible applicants must be in their second year of undergraduate studies (expected to graduate in 2027) or third year of dual degree programs (expected to graduate in 2027).
• Ability to complete a full-time, 8 to 10-week internship between May to July 2025 (exact program dates will be provided at a later point in the process).
• Basic level programming experience in C/ C++/ Java/ JavaScript or Python, etc.

Program Selection Process: 

• Step 1: Register on Unstop
• Step 2: Online MCQ Assessment
• Step 3: Online Coding Assessment
• Step 4: Interview Round

Rewards & Prizes:

• Selected students get to intern with Flipkart in the summer of 2025.
• PPI (Pre Placement Interview) opportunity for an internship at Flipkart in the pre-final year (2026).
• Exclusive benefits await the Top 500 Cohort, including access to Interviewing Skills workshops, Networking Events, resume-building sessions, expert-led sessions in the tech domain, and more!

Click Here To Apply for Register for Flipkart Runway: Season 5

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Overview | About CodeHers Hiring Challenge 2025

Test Name	CodeHers
Gender	Only Female candidate can apply
Qualification	BE/ B.Tech, Dual degree (B.Tech+M.Tech only), ME/ M.Tech
Experience	Fresher
Rewards	Job Offters
Test Mode	Online

Eligibility Criteria for CodeHers 2025:

• BE/B.Tech (Full-time): Batch of 2025 and 2026 (1st and 2nd-year students cannot apply)
• Dual Degree (B.Tech+M.Tech): Batch of 2025 and 2026 (1st, 2nd, and 3rd-year students cannot apply)
• ME/M.Tech (Full-time): Batch of 2025 and 2026 (2026 batch for summer internships, 2025 batch for full-time roles)

Additional Requirements:

• Minimum CGPA of 7+ to apply. Students with less than 7 CGPA will be disqualified.

Using multiple IDs to apply will lead to disqualification.

Stages and Timeline for CodeHers 2025

1. Demo – MCQ Assessment

• Purpose: Familiarize with the platform (NOT an elimination round)
• Not evaluated
• Recommendation: Take this demo to get comfortable with the format

2. MCQ Challenge

• Questions: 25 questions in 25 minutes
• Topics: C, Data Structures, Algorithms, Machine Learning, Java, DBMS, OOP, Computer Science fundamentals
• Start: 03 Mar 2025, 12:00 PM IST
• End: 03 Mar 2025, 08:00 PM IST
• Access: Desktop/Laptop only

3. Coding Challenge

• Details: Solve 2 coding problems in 90 minutes (any programming language)
• Evaluation: Cumulative score of MCQ and Coding Challenge will decide shortlisting
• Start: 10 Mar 2025, 12:00 PM IST
• End: 10 Mar 2025, 08:00 PM IST

4. Profile Verification

• Requirement: Submit additional info for verification
• Important: Verification is mandatory before the final interview

🏆 Competition Structure

• evel 1: MCQ Challenge (25 questions, 25 minutes) – Tests computer fundamentals.
• Level 2: Coding Challenge (2 problems, 90 minutes) – For shortlisted participants.
• Level 3: Final shortlisting based on cumulative scores, top coders will be informed about interviews.

Result Declaration Process

• 2 questions, each worth 100 marks, with equal weightage for private and public test cases.
• Candidates scoring full marks may still fail some private test cases, affecting their final score.
• A thorough sanity check will ensure fair evaluation.
• Any participant found using unfair means will be disqualified.
• The evaluation process will be accurate, fair, and include proper checks.

Rewards

• Summer Internship Opportunities 2025 (May – June):

  • Top Coders from the 2026 graduating batch will be offered direct summer internships at Walmart Global Tech India (Bangalore/Chennai).
  • Stipend: ₹1-1.1 lakh per month.
  • Perks: Return airfare, 2 weeks accommodation, office facilities, and benefits.
  • Opportunity to learn, connect, and collaborate with a talented team.

  ---

  Software Engineering Full-Time Opportunities 2025:

  • Top Coders from the 2025 graduating batch will be contacted for Pre-Placement Interviews.
  • Salary: ₹18-21 lakh with ₹2-3.5 lakh joining bonus and stock grants up to ₹2.5 lakh.
  • Perks: One-way airfare for self and dependents, 2 weeks accommodation, office facilities, and benefits.
  • Opportunity to collaborate with a talented team.

Note:

• Most of the interviews will happen in descending order of scores until all the open positions are filled for the 2025 batch. Hence, there might be some students who may not be interviewed basis the open positions.

Rewards

• Pre Placement Interviews (CTC up to ₹27 LPA):
  Software engineering salaries range from ₹18-21 lakh, with a joining bonus of ₹2-3.5 lakh and stock grants up to ₹2.5 lakh.

• Summer Internship Opportunities (Stipend ₹1-1.1 Lakh):
  Top Coders from the 2026 graduating batch will be offered summer internships at Walmart Global Tech India (Bangalore/Chennai) with a monthly stipend of ₹1-1.1 lakh.

IMPORTANT NOTE

There are no hidden fees to apply for this job opening. Any eligible candidate can apply directly.

About the Company:

http://tech.walmart.com

Click Here To Apply for CodeHers 2025

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Eligibility for Unstop Talent Park 2025

• The competition is open to all: graduate and postgraduate students, freshers, and even experienced individuals.

Rewards

• The Winner will be awarded a cash prize of INR 1,00,000 and an internship with Unstop with a stipend of INR 1,00,000.
• The 1st Runner-up will be awarded a cash prize of INR 50,000 and an internship with Unstop with a stipend of INR 1,00,000.
• 2nd Runner-up will be awarded a cash prize of INR 30,000 and an internship with Unstop with a stipend of INR 1,00,000.
• Full-Time Job Opportunity: The internship can be converted to a full-time offer based on performance
• All those who clear Round 1 can also avail exclusive discounts:
  • 40% off on a 1-year subscription to Unstop Pro* 
  • 15% off on Mentorship sessions (*offer valid for select time period)
• All finalists get exclusive Unstop Merch worth INR 5,000 each!

IMPORTANT NOTE

There are no hidden fees to apply for this job opening. Any eligible candidate can apply directly.

About the Company

Unstop, formerly Dare2Compete, is a global platform that provides students, professionals, and educators opportunities across all domains to engage with institutes and companies by participating and competing in intellectual gamified engagements like Innovation and Case Challenges, Hiring Challenges, Hackathons, Quizzes, Business Simulations, etc. Unstop helps users learn new skills, showcase their talent, gain CV points, and eventually get recognized, rewarded, and hired.

For more info visit, https://www.novartis.com/in-en/

Click Here To Apply for Unstop Talent Park 2025

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Eligibility Criteria For TCS HackQuest Season 9

Education B. Tech, B.E, M. Tech, M.E, BCA, MCA, B.Sc, B.S, M.Sc, M.S

Job Location PAN India

Registration End Date 23rd January 2025, Thursday

Round 1 25th January 2025, Saturday (from 10 AM to 4 PM IST)

Click Here To Apply for TCS HackQuest Season 9

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Eligibility Criteria :

Education:  B.Tech/B.E./M.E./M.Tech

Experience: Fresher

Last Date to Register: 10 Jan 24, 02:00 PM IS

About the Company:

The post Hackathon – Hero Corp Off Campus Challenge appeared first on JumpWhere.

Eligibility for Novartis – Nurturing Excellence Strengthening Talent

• Participants must register in teams of 1-5 members.
• All students, start-ups, and incubators are eligible to participate in this engagement.
• Cross-organization teams are allowed.
• Cross-specialization teams are allowed.
• A participant cannot be a member of more than one team.
• Any deviation from the aforementioned rules will result in immediate disqualification of the entire team.

How to participate

• Sign up on Unstop
• Register for NEST – Nurturing Excellence, Strengthening Talent – an initiative by Novartis
• Get started with Round 1

1st Round: MCQ Assessment

• All registered teams will have to take an online MCQ assessment covering Data Science, AI, and Machine Learning.
• It is mandatory for all team members to participate in this assessment at any time within the designated window from 12:00 PM to 8:00 PM on December 9, 2024.
• Start: 9 Dec 2024, 12:00 PM IST
• End: 9 Dec 2024, 08:00 PM IST

2nd Round: Screening

• The shortlisted teams have to submit a pitch deck in PDF or PPTX format.
• The pitch deck should clearly outline the initial thoughts & understanding of the problem, approach (eg. ML, neural network, etc.), dependencies/key considerations, the expected cost of implementation, etc.
• Your pitch deck should include key aspects such as the problem, solution, and team details.
• In the screening round, we’re looking for innovative ideas, clear value propositions, and teams with the passion to take their vision forward.
• Start: 11 Dec 2024, 12:00 PM IST
• End: 03 Jan 2025, 11:59 PM IST

3rd Round: Semi-Finals 

• In this round, In this phase, there will be four case studies.
• Participants are free to choose and submit solutions for multiple case studies as well.
• Participants must submit their final detailed solution, including the code created, against the proposal they had made in the screening round.
• A specific format to ensure consistency and ease of evaluation is defined for this round.
• Start: 17 Jan 2025, 12:00 PM IST
• End: 26 Jan 2025, 11:59 PM IST

4th Round: Finals – In-person pitch

• Shortlisted finalist teams shall undergo mentoring by our panel of experts to prepare for a final pitch to the Novartis leadership and SME panel.
• This is your chance to pitch the ideas at the grand finale event in front of an expert panel of judges, providing a unique opportunity to showcase the innovation, strategy, and potential in a dynamic, face-to-face setting.
• This round will test not only the strength of your idea but also your team’s ability to communicate and defend your vision under real-time scrutiny.
• Start: 21 Feb 2025, 09:00 AM IST
• End: 21 Feb 2025, 06:00 PM IST

What’s in it for you? 

• Winners of each of the four use cases will receive a cash prize of Rs. 1,25,000/-
• The first runners-up of each of the four use cases will receive a cash prize of Rs. 75,000/-
• All the National Finalists stand a chance to win PPIs from the Novartis team.
• Selected candidates stand a chance to collaborate with Novartis on co-creating a solution.

https://www.novartis.com/in-en/

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1. You can select only one option at a time.
2. You can take the QUIZ multiple times.
3. Each question will carry 100 points.
4. There are altogether 50 questions.
5. After finishing the test, you will get a score message as shown below.
6. If you score more than 90% you will get a unique code and email id along with the score message.
7. Take the screenshot of the entire page containing the message along with the unique code generated.
8. Lucky winners will get exciting goodies/gift from JUMPWHERE. The final decision will be taken by JUMPWHERE TEAM itself.
9. This contest is available only till 31-Oct-2024 12:00 PM.
10. Don’t forget to Like and Follow us on facebook for all the updates.

Jumpwhere Aptitude Contest – October 2024:

Quiz Contest - October

Start

Congratulations - you have completed Quiz Contest - October. You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%. Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%

Your answers are highlighted below.

Question 1

1.not 2.hotel 3.comfortable 4.was 5.the

A	52413
B	53412
C	41352
D	34521
E	34152

Question 1 Explanation: 

Explanation : " The hotel was not comfortable "

Question 2

Find the odd man out 10, 25, 45, 54, 60, 75, 80 ?

A	45
B	10
C	75
D	54

Question 2 Explanation: 

Each of the numbers except 54 is multiple of 5

Question 3

In a certain code 3456 is coded as ROPE & 15546 is coded as APPLE. Then how is 54613 coded?

A	RPPEO
B	POEAR
C	ROPEA
D	None of these

Question 3 Explanation: 

Clearly in the given figures, the numbers are coded as follows.
3 4 5 6 1 4.
R O P E A L.
So 54613 is coded as POEAR. The answer is (3)

Question 4

Statements: I) The staff of Airport Authorities called off the strike they were observing in protest against privatization II) The staff of Airport Authorities went on strike anticipating a threat to their jobs

A	Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause
B	Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
C	Both the statements I and II are effects of independent cause
D	Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
E	Both the statements I and II are independent causes

Question 4 Explanation: 

Both the statements I and II are effects of independent cause

Question 5

Statement : Should education be made compulsory for all children up to the age of 14 ?

Arguments :

I. Yes. This will help to eradicate the system of forced employment of children.

II. Yes. This would increase the standard of living.

A	Only argument II is strong
B	Neither I nor II is strong
C	Either I or II is strong
D	Only argument I is strong
E	Both I and II are strong

Question 5 Explanation: 

None of the argument stand valid

Question 6

I) A toothpick is useful. II) Useful things are valuable. III) A toothpick is valuable. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A	True
B	Uncertain
C	False

Question 6 Explanation: 

To the extent that a toothpick is useful, it has value

Question 7

Pipes P and Q can empty a tank in 1 hr and 1.5 hrs respectively. Pipes R and S can fill a tank in 2 hrs and 2.5 hrs respectively. The tank is filled to its capacity of 15 litres and all four pipes are opened simultaneously. How much water remains in the tank after an hour?

A	7 liters
B	3.5 liters
C	5 liters
D	2.5 liters

Question 7 Explanation: 

Part of tank emptied by P in an hour = 1
Part of tank emptied by Q in an hour = 1/1.5 = 2/3
Part of tank filled by R in an hour = ½
Part of tank filled by S in an hour = 1/ 2.5 = 2/5
Part of tank emptied in an hour = (1+ (2/3)) - (1/2 + (2/5)) = 23/30
Water remaining in the tank = 15*7/30 = 3.5 liters

Question 8

Which of the following number is divisible by 4 ?

A	100234
B	1123346
C	123458
D	10224

Question 8 Explanation: 

If the last two digits of the number is divisible by 4, then we can say that the number is divisible by 4

Question 9

4.036 divided by 0.04 gives?

A	1.009
B	10.09
C	None of these
D	100.9

Question 9 Explanation: 

(4.036 / 0.04) = (403.6 / 4) = 100.9

Question 10

Monopoly ?

A	Corrupt
B	Rich
C	Gigantic
D	Exclusive

Question 10 Explanation: 

Explanation: The exclusive possession or control of the supply of or trade in a commodity or service

Question 11

A boat travels 10 km upstream and 5 km downstream in 3 hrs. If the speed of the boat in still water is 7 kmph, find the speed of the stream?

A	3 kmph
B	2 kmph
C	4 kmph
D	5 kmph

Question 11 Explanation: 

Let the speed of the stream be x kmph
Upstream speed = (7-x) kmph
Downstream speed = (7+x) kmph
Time taken to travel upstream = (10/ (7-x)) hrs
Time taken to travel upstream = (5/ (7+x)) hrs
(10/ (7-x)) + (5/ (7+x)) = 3
3 x 2 + 5x – 42 = 0
Solving this equation, x= 3

Question 12

A and B invest Rs.150000 and Rs. 200000 in a business respectively. A withdraws an amount of Rs.50000 after 6 months .B withdraws an amount of Rs.50000 after 8 months. If the profit earned is Rs. 74000, find A’s share of the profit?

A	Rs. 5000
B	Rs. 13000
C	Rs. 40000
D	Rs. 30000

Question 12 Explanation: 

A:B =[(150000*6)+(100000*6)] : [(200000*8)+(150000*4)]
= 15:22
A’s share = (15/37)*74000 = Rs. 30000

Question 13

Statement: Since its launching in 1981, Vayudoot has so far accumulated losses amounting to Rs 153 crore. Courses of Action: I) Vayudoot should be directed to reduce wasteful expenditure and to increase passenger fare. II) An amount of about Rs 300 crore should be provided to Vayudoot to make the airliner economically viable.

A	Only I follows
B	Both I and II follow
C	Either I or II follows
D	Only II follows
E	Neither I nor II follows

Question 13 Explanation: 

Clearly, for better economic gain, losses should be reduced and income increased.
So, only course I follows.

Question 14

Read the each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is 'E'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any). (solve as per the direction given above)

A	No error
B	that no problem forced by our society
C	All of you will agree with me
D	is a grave and intractable
E	as this problem is

Question 14 Explanation: 

That no other problem faced by our country

Question 15

Pointing to a photograph of a boy Suresh said, "He is the son of the only son of my mother." How is Suresh related to that boy?

A	Cousin
B	Father
C	Uncle
D	Brother

Question 15 Explanation: 

The boy in the photograph is the only son of the son of Suresh's mother i.e., the son of Suresh. Hence, Suresh is the father of boy.

Question 16

Statement: The X-Airlines has decided to increase the passenger fare by 15 percent with immediate effect. Assumptions I) The demand for seats of X-Airlines may remain unchanged even after the hike of fare. II) Other airline companies may also hike the passenger fares.

A	Neither I nor II is implicit
B	Either I or II is implicit
C	Only assumption I is implicit
D	Only assumption II is implicit
E	Both I and II are implicit

Question 16 Explanation: 

Clearly, such decisions are taken only after making sure that it will not affect the company's business adversely. So, I is implicit. However, the impact of this increase on other airlines cannot be ascertained. So, II is not implicit.

Question 17

The teacher said to Mahesh, “Congratulations! Wish you success in life.”

A	The teacher wished congratulations and success in life to Mahesh
B	The teacher congratulated Mahesh and said with you success in life
C	The teacher said congratulations to Mahesh and wished him success in life
D	The teacher to congratulated Mahesh and wished him success in life

Question 18

Y investing Rs. 1620 in 8% stock, Sandeep earns Rs. 135. The stock is then quoted at :

A	Rs. 80
B	Rs. 96
C	Rs. 108
D	Rs. 106

Question 18 Explanation: 

To earn Rs. 135, investment = Rs. 1620 To earn Rs. 8, investment = Rs. (1620/135) * 8 = Rs. 96 Market value of Rs. 100 stock = Rs. 96

Question 19

Sundar runs 20 m towards East and turns to right and runs 10 m. Then he turns to the right and runs 9 m. Again he turns to right and runs 5 m. After this he turns to left and runs 12 m and finally he turns to right and 6 m. Now to which direction is Sundar facing?

A	South
B	West
C	East
D	North

Question 19 Explanation: 

Therefore, it is clear that Sundar will face towards North

Question 20

palette	easel	brush
textbook	lesson plan	?

A	Report card
B	Artist
C	Teacher
D	Painter

Question 20 Explanation: 

The objects above the line are all things used by an artist. The objects below the line are all things used by a teacher.

Question 21

Two cubes of sides 3m, 4m and 5m are melted to form a new cube. The side of the new cube is ?

A	10 m
B	12 m
C	6 m
D	8 m

Question 21 Explanation: 

Total volume of the three cubes
= 3cube + 3cube + 5cube = 216 m cube
Side of the new cube = 6m

Question 22

Find the highest common factor of 36 and 84

A	4
B	18
C	6
D	12

Question 22 Explanation: 

36 = 22 x 32
84 = 22 x 3 x 7
H.C.F. = 22 x 3 = 12.

Question 23

REVEALED

A	Overlooked
B	Denied
C	Ignored
D	Concealed

Question 23 Explanation: 

REVEALED means make (previously unknown or secret information) known to others.

Question 24

P is able to do a piece of work in 15 days and Q can do the same work in 20 days. If they can work together for 4 days, what is the fraction of work left?

A	8/15
B	7/15
C	11/15
D	2/11

Question 24 Explanation: 

Amount of work P can do in 1 day = 1/15
Amount of work Q can do in 1 day = 1/20
Amount of work P and Q can do in 1 day = 1/15 + 1/20 = 7/60
Amount of work P and Q can together do in 4 days = 4 * (7/60) = 7/15
Fraction of work left = 1 – 7/15 = 8/15

Question 25

3, 10, 101, ?

A	11012
B	10202
C	10201
D	10101

Question 25 Explanation: 

Each term in the series is obtained by adding 1 to the square of the preceding term.
So, missing term = 101² + 1 = 10202.

Question 26

Study the following figure and answer the question "How many artists are players?"

A	8
B	5
C	25
D	16

Question 26 Explanation: 

The no. of artists who are players is 22 + 3 = 25

Question 27

A certain amount becomes Rs. 5760 in 2 years and Rs. 6912 in 3 years. What is the principal amount and the rate of interest?

A	Rs. 7000
B	Rs. 3000
C	Rs. 4000
D	Rs. 2500

Question 27 Explanation: 

S.I on Rs. 5760 for 1 year = 6912 – 5760 = Rs. 1152
Therefore, Rate of interest for 1 year = 100 * 1152/5760 * 1 = 20%
Let the principal be p
Then, Principal = p[1 + 20 / 100]² = 5760
Solving which gives Principal = Rs. 4000

Question 28

Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence 1.Caste 2.Family 3.Newly married couple 4.Clan 5.Species

A	3, 2, 1, 4, 5
B	4, 5, 3, 2, 1
C	2, 3, 1, 4, 5
D	3, 4, 5, 1, 2

Question 28 Explanation: 

Explanation: The correct order is :
Newly married Couple Family Caste Clan Species 3 2 1 4 5

Question 29

HATCH : HOLD :: ?

A	courtyard : terrace
B	rudder : anchor
C	boat : barge
D	door : room

Question 29 Explanation: 

(PART AND THE WHOLE) One enters a hold (of a ship) through the hatch; one enters a room through the door. (D)

Question 30

A bag contains 2 red, 3 green and 2 blue balls. Two balls are drawn at random. What is the probability that none of the balls drawn is blue?

A	2/7
B	10/21
C	11/21
D	5/7

Question 30 Explanation: 

Total number of balls = (2 + 3 + 2) = 7
Let S be the sample space
Then, n(S) = Number of ways of drawing 2 balls out of 7
= 7C₂ = (7 x 6) / (2 x 1) = 21
Let E = Event of drawing 2 balls, none of which is blue
n(E) = Number of ways of drawing 2 balls out of (2 + 3) balls
= ⁵C₂
= (5 x 4) / (2 x 1)
= 10
Therefore P(E) = n(E) / n(S) = 10 / 21

Question 31

8 children and 12 men complete a certain piece of work in 9 days. If each child takes twice the time taken by a man to finish the work, in how many days will 12 men finish the same work?

A	12 days
B	16 days
C	22 days
D	26 days

Question 31 Explanation: 

2 children = 1 man  (8 children + 12 men) = 16 men  Less men, more days( Indirect proportion )  12 : 16 :: 9: x  12x= (16*9)  12x = 144  X= 144/12  X= 12 days

Question 32

His plan was so complicated that it floored his listeners.

A	annoyed
B	puzzled
C	encouraged
D	entertained

Question 33

A batsman scored 110 runs which included 3 boundaries and 8 sixes. What percent of his total score did he make by running between the wickets?

A	45 5/11%
B	54 6/11%
C	55%
D	45%

Question 33 Explanation: 

Number of runs made by running = 110 - (3 x 4 + 8 x 6)
= 110 - (60)
= 50.
Required percentage = ( (50 x 100)/100)% = 5/4511 %

Question 34

From a group of 7 men and 6 women, five persons are to be selected to form a committee so that at least 3 men are there on the committee. In how many ways can it be done?

A	756
B	735
C	645
D	564

Question 34 Explanation: 

We may have (3 men and 2 women) or (4 men and 1 woman) or (5 men only). Required number of ways = (⁷C₃ x ⁶C₂) + (⁷C₄ x ⁶C₁) + (⁷C₅)
(7 x 6 x 5)/(3x2x1) x (6 x 5/2x1) + (⁷C₃ x ⁶C₁) + (⁷C₂)
=525 +(7x6x5/3x2x1 x 6) + (7x6/2x1)
= (525 + 210 + 21)
=756

Question 35

DEBACLE

A	Disgrace
B	Defeat
C	Decline
D	Collapse

Question 35 Explanation: 

DEBACLE means a sudden and ignominious failure; a fiasco.

Question 36

P, T, V, R, M, D, K and W are sitting around a circular table facing the Centre. V is second to the left of T. T is fourth to the right of M. D and P are not immediate neighbors of T. D is third to the right of P. W is not an immediate neighbor of P. P is to the immediate left of K. What is R’s position with respect to V ?

A	Fifth to the right
B	Third to the left
C	Third to the right
D	Second to the left

Question 36 Explanation: 

R's position with respect to V is third to the right

Question 37

How many days are there between 10th March,2011 and 20th July,2011 (excluding both days)?

A	133
B	131
C	134
D	132

Question 37 Explanation: 

21 days in March [11th – 31st]
30 days in April
31 days in May
30 days in June
19 days in July [1st – 19th]
Total = 131 days

Question 38

Statement : Good voice is a natural gift but one has to keep practising to improve and excel well in the field of music.

Conclusions :

I. Natural gifts need nurturing and care.

II. Even though your voice is not good, one can keep practising.

A	Both I and II follow
B	Neither I nor II follows
C	Only conclusion I follows
D	Either I or II follows
E	Only conclusion II follows

Question 38 Explanation: 

Conclusion I follows to statement, but second is not stated in statement. So it do not follow

Question 39

S1. The effect of exercise on the immune system is a field of intense research. A. For example, if patients suffering from recurrent sore throats, the practice of sarvangasana greatly reduces the frequency of infections. B. There is definite evidence that exercise helps better functioning of the immune cells. C. In yoga, regional immunity can be improved because the blood can be flushed into any area. D. This increases the concentration of immunity cells in those areas. S6. Immunity is also improved by de-stressing of the body and the mind.

A	BCDA
B	BDAC
C	DBAC
D	CDAB

Question 39 Explanation: 

The proper order for the four sentences is BCDA

Question 40

Two trains of equal length are running on parallel lines in the same direction at 46 km/hr and 36 km/hr. The faster train passes the slower train in 36 seconds. The length of each train is?

A	72 m
B	50 m
C	80 m
D	82 m

Question 40 Explanation: 

Let the length of each train be x metres
Then, distance covered = 2xmetres
Relative speed = (46 - 36) km/hr
= (10 * 5 / 18) m/sec
= (25 / 9) m/sec
Therefore,( 2x / 36) = (25 / 9)
2x = 100 x = 50

Question 41

Bury the hatchet ?

A	Joint operation of killing
B	To make peace
C	None of above
D	To break peace

Question 41 Explanation: 

Example : His family members should bury the hatched to make peace in his home.

Question 42

Which number comes next ? 402, 388, 410, 396, 418, 404, ____

A	412
B	416
C	426
D	422

Question 42 Explanation: 

388+8 = 396 396+8 = 404
410+8 = 418 418+8 = 426
The two series are combined together

Question 43

In a march past, seven persons are standing in a row. Q is standing left to R but right to P. O is standing right to N and left to P. Similarly, S is standing right to R and left to T. Find out who is standing in middle?

A	R
B	P
C	O
D	Q

Question 43 Explanation: 

Q is left to R and to the right of P i,e P, Q, R.
O is to the right of N and left of P i,e N, O, P.
S is to the right of R and left of T i,e R, S, T.
Clearly, Q is in the middle.

Question 44

Present opposing arguments or evidence ?

A	Rebut
B	Reprimand
C	Rebuff
D	Criticise

Question 44 Explanation: 

Rebut claim or prove that (evidence or an accusation) is false.

Question 45

Ratio of Jehin's age to Nitin's age is equal to 4 : 3, Jehin will be 26 years old after 6 years. How old is Nitin now?

A	21 yrs
B	19 yrs
C	15 yrs
D	12 yrs

Question 45 Explanation: 

J = 26 - 6 = 20
J - N = 4 : 3
N = 15

Question 46

Statements: All buildings are chalks. No chalk is toffee. Conclusions: I) No building is toffee II) All chalks are buildings

A	Neither I nor II follows
B	Only conclusion II follows
C	Only conclusion I follows
D	Either I or II follows

Question 46 Explanation: 

Question 47

If 40% of a number is equal to two-third of another number, what is the ratio of first number to the second number ?

A	7 : 3
B	2 : 5
C	3 : 7
D	5 : 3

Question 47 Explanation: 

Let 40% of A = 2 / 3 B
Then, 40A / 100 = 2B / 3
2A / 5 = 2B / 3
A / B = (2 / 3 * 5 / 2) = 5 / 3
A : B = 5 : 3

Question 48

In a mixture of milk and water, the proportion of milk by weight was 80%. If, in a 180 gm mixture, 36 gms of pure milk is added, what would be the percentage of milk in the mixture formed?

A	87.5%
B	83.33%
C	84%
D	100%

Question 48 Explanation: 

Percentage of milk in the mixture formed = [80/100 (180) + 36] / (180 + 36) * 100% = (144 + 36) /216 * 100% = 5/6 * 100% = 83.33%

Question 49

A vendor loses a selling price of 4 oranges on selling 36 oranges. His loss percentage is ?

A	12
B	10
C	11
D	None of these

Question 49 Explanation: 

If there is loss on selling item = selling price of an article
To find loss%, simply add 36 to 4 = 40
Loss % = 4/40 * 100 = 10

Question 50

If he would have revised his first draft, he would have received a better grade.

A	had revised
B	had of revised
C	would revise
D	would have revised
E	could of revised

Question 50 Explanation: 

With conditional-subjunctive constructions, never add the subjunctive auxiliary verb (would/could/would have/could have) to the conditional (If) half [(A), (C), (E)]; it is only used in the subjunctive half.
It is never correct to substitute the preposition "of" for the auxiliary verb "have" [(C), (D)].

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1. You can select only one option at a time.
2. You can take the QUIZ multiple times.
3. Each question will carry 100 points.
4. There are altogether 30 questions.
5. After finishing the test, you will get a score message as shown below.
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Aptitude Contest –  MAY 2024:

Quiz Contest - May

Start

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Your answers are highlighted below.

Question 1

The policy of extending a country's empire & influence ?

A	Internationalism
B	Communism
C	Capitalism
D	Imperialism

Question 1 Explanation: 

Imperialism means a policy of extending a country's power and influence through colonization, use of military force, or other means.

Question 2

Jayant is as much younger to akil as he is older to pranav. If the sum of the age of akil and pranav is 48 years, what is the age of jayant?

A	none of these
B	30
C	24
D	20

Question 2 Explanation: 

A - J = J - P
2J = A + P
A + P = 48
2J = 48
J = 24

Question 3

Two trains are moving in opposite directions @ 60 km/hr and 90 km/hr. Their lengths are 1.10 km and 0.9 km respectively. The time taken by the slower train to cross the faster train in seconds is?

A	48
B	45
C	36
D	49

Question 3 Explanation: 

Relative speed = (60+ 90) km/hr
=(150 * 5 / 18) m/sec
= (125 / 3) m/sec
Distance covered = (1.10 + 0.9) km = 2 km = 2000 m
Required time = (2000 * (3/125) sec = 48 sec

Question 4

Statement : All the organised persons find time for rest. Sunita, in-spite of her busy schedule, finds time for rest.

Conclusions :

I. Sunita is an organised person.

II. Sunita is an industrious person.

A	Both I and II follow
B	Neither I nor II follow
C	Only conclusion I follows
D	Only conclusion II follows
E	Either I or II follows

Question 4 Explanation: 

Sunita has a busy schedule. This means that she is industrious. But still she finds the time for rest.
This means that she is an organised person. So both conclusions follow.

Question 5

ESSENTIAL

A	Extra
B	Minors
C	Noughts
D	Trivial

Question 5 Explanation: 

ESSENTIAL means absolutely necessary; extremely important

Question 6

Pipe A and B can fill a tank in 1 hour and1 ¼ hours respectively. Both pipes are opened in the beginning and after some time, pipe B is closed. The tank is filled in 40 minutes. Pipe B was closed after?

A	40 mins
B	25 mins
C	45 mins
D	30 mins

Question 6 Explanation: 

Part of tank filled by A in a minute = 1/60
Part of tank filled by B in a minutes =1/75
Let pipe B be closed after x minutes
Part of tank filled in x minutes= x*[(1/60)+(1/75)] = 9x / 300 Part of tank filled in (40-x) minutes = [(40-x)*(1/60)] = (40-x) / 60
(9x / 300) + ((40 - x) / 60) = 1 4x = 100
X= 25

Question 7

5 days before April 13th 2011 was a Friday. What day was 5 days after April 13th?

A	Friday
B	Tuesday
C	Wednesday
D	Monday

Question 7 Explanation: 

10 days after Friday is a Monday
Number of odd days in a 10 day period = 3

Question 8

S1. The new economic policy comprises the various measures and changes introduced since July 1991. A. There is a common thread running through all these measures. B. The objective is simple – to improve the efficiency of the system. C. The regulatory mechanism involving multitude of controls has fragmented the capacity and reduced competition even in the private sector. D. The thrust of the new policy is towards creating a more competitive environment as a means to improving the productivity and efficiency of the economy. S6. This is to be activated by removing the barriers and restrictions on the entry and growth of firms.

A	BDAC
B	DCBA
C	ABCD
D	DCAB

Question 8 Explanation: 

The proper order of the four sentences is ABCD

Question 9

Study the following figure and answer the question "How many players are neither artists nor doctors"?

A	25
B	10
C	17
D	5

Question 9 Explanation: 

The no. of players who are neither artists nor doctors is 25

Question 10

The curious neighbours were disappointed as the young couple's quarrel was just a storm in a tea cup.

A	brittle situation
B	fuss about a trifle
C	violent quarrel
D	quarrel about tea cups

Question 11

1.I 2.help 3.not 4.you 5.did

A	52431
B	43152
C	15324
D	45231
E	24351

Question 11 Explanation: 

Explanation : " I did not help you "

Question 12

EXPEL : SCHOOL :: ?

A	Escape : Penitentiary
B	Exile : Nation
C	Vacate : Building
D	Export : Factory

Question 12 Explanation: 

(CAUSE AND EFFECT) A person expelled from school cannot reenter it; a person exiled (meaning banished legally) from a country cannot reenter it. (B)

Question 13

Arrange the following in a logical order:

1. Euphoria 2. Happiness 3. Ambivalence 4. Ecstasy 5. Pleasure

 

A	2, 1, 3, 4, 5
B	3, 2, 5, 1, 4
C	4, 1, 3, 2, 5
D	3, 2, 5, 1, 4

Question 13 Explanation: 

Explanation: All the given words stand for 'Joy', but the intensity increases in the order - Ambivalence, Happiness, Pleasure, Euphoria, Ecstasy.
Thus the correct order is 3, 2, 5, 1, 4.
Hence the answer is (C)

Question 14

In what ratio should a variety of rice costing Rs. 6 per kg be mixed with another variety of rice costing Rs. 8.75 per kg to obtain a mixture costing Rs. 7.50 per kg?

A	7 : 8
B	5 : 6
C	8 : 9
D	3 : 4

Question 14 Explanation: 

Let us say the ratio of the quantities of cheaper and dearer varieties = x : y
By the rule of allegation, x/y = (87.5 - 7.50) / (7.50 - 6) = 5/6

Question 15

A cuboid of length 10m, breadth 5m and height 15m is to be formed using cubes of side 5m. How many such cubes are needed to form the cuboid?

A	15
B	50
C	150
D	6

Question 15 Explanation: 

No. of cubes needed
= Volume of the cuboid / volume of a cube
= (10*15*5) / (5*5*5) = 6

Question 16

A number consist of 3 digits whose sum is 10. The middle digit is equal to the sum of the other two and the number will be increased by 99 if its digits are reversed. The number is..?

A	352
B	370
C	145
D	253

Question 16 Explanation: 

Let the digits of the No. be x & y & z
Hence , x + y + z = 10………(1)
x + z = y………(2)
As per the condition
(100z + 10y + x) - (100x + 10y + z) = 99
Solving, the value of (z - x) =1
From equation(1) and (2)
2y = 10, y = 5
So 253 satisfies all the condition

Question 17

The fraction 101 27/100000 in decimal form is ?

A	101.00027
B	0.10127
C	0.01027
D	101.000027

Question 17 Explanation: 

101 27/100000 = 101 + (27/100000) = 101 + .00027 = 101.00027

Question 18

Find the odd man out 6, 9, 15, 21, 24, 28, 30 ?

A	24
B	21
C	28
D	30

Question 18 Explanation: 

Each of the numbers except 28, is a multiple of 3.

Question 19

From a pack of 52 cards, two cards are drawn together at random. What is the probability of both the cards being kings?

A	35/256
B	25/157
C	1/221
D	1/15

Question 19 Explanation: 

Let S be the sample space
Then, n(S) = ⁵²C₂ = (52 x 51) / (2 x1) = 1326
Let E = event of getting 2 kings out of 4
n(E) = ⁴C₂ = (4 x 3) / (2 x1) = 6
P(E) = n(E) / n(S) = 6 / 1326 = 1 / 221

Question 20

Statements: All cars are cats. All fans are cats. Conclusions: I) All cars are fans. II) Some fans are cars.

A	Either I or II follow
B	Neither I nor II follow
C	Only conclusion II follows
D	Only conclusion I follows

Question 20 Explanation: 

Question 21

Bring to book?

A	To write a story
B	To serve
C	To praise
D	To punish

Question 21 Explanation: 

Example : He was brought to book for his mistake.

Question 22

If I would have known about the team tryouts, I would have signed up for them

A	could of known
B	would have known
C	had known
D	could have been told
E	had been told

Question 22 Explanation: 

Conditional-subjunctive ("If...then") constructions set in the past use past perfect ("If I had known") for the conditional, and present perfect ("I would have signed up") for the subjunctive, because "If" comes earlier and "then" later.
Adding the subjunctive "would"/"could" to the conditional as well (B) is incorrect.
Substituting the preposition "of" for the auxiliary verb "have" (C) is always incorrect. "Had been/could have been told" [(C), (D)] differs in meaning from "had known."

Question 23

A boat can travel 16 km upstream and 24 km downstream in 4 hours. It can travel 24 km upstream and 18 km downstream in 4.5 hours. Find the speed of the boat.

A	2 kmph
B	10 kmph
C	9 kmph
D	12 kmph

Question 23 Explanation: 

(16/u) + (24/d) = 4
(24/u) + (18/d) = 4.5
Solving, u = 8, d = 12
b = (u + d)/2 = 10 kmph

Question 24

I said to him, “Why are you working so hard”?

A	I asked him why he had been working so hard
B	I asked him why he was working so hard
C	I asked him why was he working so hard
D	I asked him why had he been working so hard

Question 25

DISTINCTION

A	Disagreement
B	Different
C	Diffusion
D	Degree

Question 25 Explanation: 

DISTINCTION means a difference or contrast between similar things or people.

Question 26

A, B , C share the profits earned after a year in the ratio of 6:8:9. A was a full-time partner. B had partnered for 4 months and C had partnered for 6 months. Find the ratio of their investments?

A	6 : 8 : 9
B	6 : 8 : 9
C	1 : 4 : 3
D	4 : 2 : 9

Question 26 Explanation: 

A*12: B*4:C*6 = 6:8:9
A: B: C = (6/12) : (8/4) : (9/6)
= 1:4:3

Question 27

ABSTAIN

A	Ingest
B	Consume
C	Refrain
D	Take in

Question 27 Explanation: 

ABSTAIN means restrain oneself from doing or enjoying something.

Question 28

Five children are sitting in a row. S is sitting next to P but not T. is sitting next to R who is sitting on extreme left and T is not sitting next to K. Who are sitting adjacent to S?

A	R and P
B	Only C
C	P and T
D	K and P

Question 28 Explanation: 

S is sitting next to P. So, the order S, P or P, S is followed. Is sitting next to R. So, the order R, K is followed because R is on the extreme left. T is not next to P or K.
So, the arrangement will be R, K, P, S, T. Clearly, P and T are sitting adjacent to S.

Question 29

Read the each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is 'E'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any). (solve as per the direction given above)  

A	Green mangoes also
B	Sent by the gardener
C	No error
D	Contained a number of
E	The basket of apples

Question 29 Explanation: 

No error found

Question 30

• P, Q and R can do a work in 20, 30 and 60 days respectively. How many days does it. Need to complete the work if P does the work and he is assisted by Q and R on every third day?

A	14 days
B	15 days
C	9 days
D	10 days

Question 30 Explanation: 

Amount of work P can do in 1 day = 1/20
Amount of work Q can do in 1 day = 1/30
Amount of work R can do in 1 day = 1/60
P is working alone and every third day Q and R is helping him
Work completed in every three days = 2 * (1/20) + (1/20 + 1/30 + 1/60) = 1/5
So work completed in 15 days = 5 * 1/5 = 1
I.e, the work will be done in 15 days

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Do you want to create goods that have a huge influence on millions of people? This is your chance to join one of Unstop’s most exciting teams. Take part in Tata Imagination Challenge 2022 to show off your abilities and a chance to jump ahead of the applicant line.

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You are eligible for this track if you are/have:

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The post Tata Imagination Challenge – 2021 appeared first on JumpWhere.

Eligibility Criteria:

About the Company:

https://dare2compete.com/

To Apply, Click here!! 

For Job Notifications in Whatsapp, join the below groups:

•  Freshers:   https://chat.whatsapp.com/HyEbkLjlbhQJezy7Gi7y1M
• All/Experienced:  https://chat.whatsapp.com/DjHQ4vtBHseELJ7NQPjYRj
• Aptitude:  https://chat.whatsapp.com/GbWR0MVqfkbHhYCO8HIbai

Show JUMPWHERE some love:

• Like our facebook page – https://www.facebook.com/JumpWhere/
• Subscribe to youtube channel – https://www.youtube.com/c/jumpwhere
• Follow on Instagram – https://www.instagram.com/jumpwhere/ or @jumpwhere

[vc_row][vc_column width=”1/4″][vc_btn title=”Aptitude Cracker” color=”orange” size=”lg” align=”centre” link=”url:https%3A%2F%2Fjumpwhere.com%2Faptitude%2F||target:%20_blank|”][/vc_column][vc_column width=”1/4″][vc_btn title=”Interview Tips” color=”orange” size=”lg” align=”centre” link=”url:https%3A%2F%2Fjumpwhere.com%2Fcategory%2Farticles%2F||target:%20_blank|”][/vc_column][vc_column width=”1/4″][vc_btn title=”Latest Job Openings” color=”orange” size=”lg” align=”centre” link=”url:https%3A%2F%2Fjumpwhere.com%2Fjob||target:%20_blank|”][/vc_column][/vc_row]

The post Hackathon – Unleash Hack by Dare2compete appeared first on JumpWhere.

1. You can select only one option at a time.
2. You can take the QUIZ multiple times.
3. Each question will carry 100 points.
4. There are altogether 35 questions.
5. After finishing the test, you will get a score message as shown below.
6. If you score more than 90% you will get a unique code and email id along with the score message.
7. Take the screenshot of the entire page containing the message along with the unique code generated.
8. Lucky winners will get exciting goodies/gift from JUMPWHERE. The final decision will be taken by JUMPWHERE TEAM itself.
9. This contest is available only till 31-Mar-2021 12:00 PM.
10. Don’t forget to Like and Follow us on facebook for all the updates.

Aptitude Contest – March 2021: