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Jumpwhere Aptitude Contest – August 2024

MS — Sat, 03 Aug 2024 02:30:43 +0000

Instructions for Aptitude Contest – August 2024:

You can select only one option at a time.
You can take the QUIZ multiple times.
Each question will carry 100 points.
There are altogether 35 questions.
After finishing the test, you will get a score message as shown below.
If you score more than 90% you will get a unique code and email id along with the score message.
Take the screenshot of the entire page containing the message along with the unique code generated.
Lucky winners will get exciting goodies/gift from JUMPWHERE. The final decision will be taken by JUMPWHERE TEAM itself.
This contest is available only till 31-Aug-2024 12:00 PM.
Don’t forget to Like and Follow us on facebook for all the updates.

Aptitude Contest – August 2024:

Quiz Contest - August

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Congratulations - you have completed Quiz Contest - August. You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%. %%RATING%%

Your answers are highlighted below.

Question 1

To produce an annual income of Rs. 1200 from a 12% stock at 90, the amount of stock needed is ?

A	Rs. 10800
B	Rs. 16000
C	Rs. 10000
D	Rs. 14400

Question 1 Explanation:

For an income of Rs.12, stock needed = 100 For an income of Rs. 1200, stock needed = 100 * 1200/12 = 10000

Question 2

By next month, Ms. Jones will be Mayor of Tallahassee for two years.

A	will be Mayor of Tallahassee
B	will have been Mayor of Tallahassee
C	will be mayor of Tallahassee
D	could have been mayor of Tallahassee
E	will have been mayor of Tallahassee

Question 2 Explanation:

"By next month" used together with "for two years" indicates something that will be completed in the future, so future perfect "will have been" is the correct tense.
"Will be" [(A), (C)] means she will be mayor for two years beginning in the future.
Moreover, "Mayor" [(A), (B)] is incorrectly capitalized: it is not used as a title/name here (like "Mayor Jones"). "Could have been" (E) changes the meaning.

Question 3

The size of a wooden block is 1*5*10 cm³. Find the number of blocks needed to construct a wooden cube of side 50cm.

A	50
B	500
C	100
D	2500

Question 3 Explanation:

No. of blocks needed = (50*50*50) / (1*5*10) = 2500

Question 4

A, B and C invest Rs. 50000, Rs. 30000 and Rs. 20000 in a business respectively. If the profit earned is Rs. 20000, find C's share of the profit?

A	Rs. 6000
B	Rs. 10000
C	Rs. 2000
D	Rs. 4000

Question 4 Explanation:

Share of profits between A,B and C is in the ratio 5:3:2
C’s share = (2/10)*20000 = Rs.4000

Question 5

Which of the following is the greatest?

A	40% of 30
B	five more than the square of 3
C	6.5% of 200
D	3/5 of 25

Question 5 Explanation:

3/5 of 25b=15
40% of 30 = 12
6.5% of 200 = 13
5+9=14

Question 6

Statements: Some dogs are bats. Some bats are cats. Conclusions: I) Some dogs are cats. II) Some cats are dogs.

A	Either (1) or (2) follows
B	Only (1) conclusion follows
C	Only (2) conclusion follows
D	Neither (1) nor (2) follows

Question 6 Explanation:

Question 7

A train running at the speed of 60 km/hr crosses a pole in 9 seconds. What is the length of the train?

A	180 meters
B	150 meters
C	324 meters
D	120 meters

Question 7 Explanation:

Speed = (60 * 5/18) m/sec = (50/3) m/sec
Length of the train = (Speed * Time)
Length of the train = ((50/3) * 9) m = 150 m

Question 8

If the area of two circles are in the ratio 169:196 then the ratio of their radii is?

A	12:13
B	13:14
C	10:11
D	11:12

Question 8 Explanation:

If r and R are radii if two circles, then
pi * r^2 /pi * R^2 = 169 / 196
r^2 / R^2 = 169 / 196 = (13/14)^2
so r/R = 13/14t

Question 9

RETICENT : TALK :: ?

A	abstemious : devour
B	cranky : grumble
C	tasteless : savor
D	likely : conjecture

Question 9 Explanation:

(ANTONYM VARIANT) A reticent (meaning reserved in style) person does not talk; an abstemious (meaning given to eating in moderation) person-does not devour (meaning eat like a glutton).
(A) {The related antonym relationship is;reticent: talkative :: abstemious : devour}

Question 10

UNCOUTH

A	Ungraceful
B	Slovenly
C	Dirty
D	Rough

Question 10 Explanation:

UNCOUTH means lacking good manners, refinement, or grace.

Question 11

120, 99, 80, 63, 48, ?

A	38
B	40
C	39
D	35

Question 11 Explanation:

The pattern is - 21, - 19, - 17, - 15,.....
So, missing term = 48 - 13 = 35.

Question 12

Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence 1.Presentation 2.Recommendation 3.Arrival 4.Discussion 5.Introduction

A	5,3,1,2,4
B	5,3,4,1,2
C	3,5,4,2,1
D	3,5,1,4,2

Question 12 Explanation:

The correct order is : Arrival Introduction Presentation Discussion Recommendation
3 5 1 4 2

Question 13

Which of the following fractions is greater than 3/4 and less than 5/6 ?

A	4/5
B	9/10
C	1/2
D	2/3

Question 13 Explanation:

3/4 = 0.75, 5/6 = 0.833, 1/2 = 0.5, 2/3 = 0.66, 4/5 = 0.8, 9/10 = 0.9
Clearly, 0.8 lies between 0.75 and 0.833
Therefore 4/5 lies between 3/4 and 5/6

Question 14

July 15th of 2012 is Sunday. What day was July 15th of 2008?

A	Tuesday
B	Wednesday
C	Sunday
D	Monday

Question 14 Explanation:

Number of odd days from 2009 to 2012 = 1+1+1+2 = 5
5 Days before Sunday is Tuesday

Question 15

Bid defiance?

A	None of above
B	To ignore
C	To obey
D	To follow

Question 15 Explanation:

Example : His girl friend bade defiance to his wish to go for movie and instead they went for lunch in hotel

Question 16

The ratio of Cost price and Selling price is 4 : 5. The profit percent is ?

A	10
B	25
C	30
D	20

Question 16 Explanation:

1/30th of the tank is filled by pipe B in 1 minutes
1/60th of the tank is emptied by pipe C in 1 minutes
Part of tank filled in the first 6 minutes = 6*[(1/20)+(1/30)] = ½
When all pipes are opened, part of tank filled in 1 minutes = (1/12)-(1/60) = 1/15
Time required to fill the remaining ½ of the tank = (1/2) / (1/15) = 7.5
Total time = 6+7.5 = 13.5 minutes

Question 17

Sachin was twice as old as ajay, 10 years back. How old is ajay today, if sachin will be 40 years old, 10 years hence?

A	25
B	18
C	20
D	15

Question 17 Explanation:

S+10 = 40
S = 30
S - 10 = 2(A - 10)
A = 20

Question 18

Having sold off his factory, he is now a gentleman at large.

A	Is held in high esteem
B	Has no serious occupation
C	Is living comfortably
D	Is respected by everybody

Question 19

Find the next number 2, 7, 28, 63, 124, __?

A	215
B	217
C	225
D	196

Question 19 Explanation:

1 cube+1 = 2
2 cube-1 = 7
3 cube+1 = 28
4 cube-1 = 63
5 cube+1 = 126
6 cube-1 = 215

Question 20

A teacher can divide her class into groups of 5, 13 and 17. What is the smallest possible strength of the class?

A	940
B	1105
C	1220
D	835

Question 20 Explanation:

Smallest possible strength of the class will be L.C.M of 5,13,17 ans:1105

Question 21

STRINGENT

A	Vehement
B	Magnanimous
C	General
D	Lenient

Question 21 Explanation:

STRINGENT means strict, precise, and exacting.

Question 22

In how many ways a committee, consisting of 5 men and 6 women can be formed from 8 men and 10 women?

A	11760
B	86400
C	5040
D	266

Question 22 Explanation:

Required number of ways:
= (8C5 X 10C6)
= {(8*7*6/3*2*1)*(10*9*8*7/4*3*2*1)}
= 11760

Question 23

To issue a thunderous verbal attack?

A	Invigorate
B	Fulminate
C	Animate
D	Languish

Question 23 Explanation:

Fulminate means expressing vehement protest.

Question 24

A particular letter stands for another letter in letter coding: "If COURSE is coded as FRXUVH how is RACE would be coded"?

A	UDHF
B	HFDU
C	UDFH
D	UDFG

Question 24 Explanation:

In the given code, each letter is moved three steps forward than the corresponding letter in the word. So R is coded as U, A as D, C as F, E as H. Hence (3) is the answer.t

Question 25

A man can row upstream at a speed of 20 kmph and downstream at a speed of 27 kmph. Find the speed of the stream?

A	23.5 kmph
B	2.5 kmph
C	7 kmph
D	3.5 kmph

Question 25 Explanation:

Let the speed of the stream be a kmph and the speed of the boat be b kmph b + s = 27
b - s = 20
Solving the equations, s = 3.5 kmph

Question 26

A bag contains 12 white and 18 black balls. Two balls are drawn in succession without replacement. What is the probability that first is white and second is black?

A	36/135
B	18/29
C	18/145
D	36/145

Question 26 Explanation:

The probability that first ball is white:
= ¹²C₁ / ³⁰C₁ = 12 / 30 = 2 / 5
Since, the ball is not replaced; hence the number of balls left in bag is 29
Hence, the probability the second ball is black:
= ¹⁸C₁ / ²⁹C₁= 18 / 29
Required probability,
= (2 / 5) × (18 / 29)
= 36 / 145

Question 27

Study the following figure and answer the question "How many doctors are neither artists nor players"?

A	10
B	5
C	30
D	17

Question 27 Explanation:

The number of doctors who are neither artists nor players is 17r

Question 28

candle	lamp	floodlight
hut	cottage	?

A	dwelling
B	tent
C	house
D	city

Question 28 Explanation:

Above the line, the relationship shows a progression of sources of light.
The relationship below the line shows a progression of types of housing, from smallest to largest. (Choice a) is incorrect because a tent is smaller than a house.
Choices b and c are wrong because they are not part of the progression.

Question 29

Find the odd man out 3, 5, 11, 14, 17, 21 ?

A	21
B	3
C	17
D	14

Question 29 Explanation:

Each of the numbers except 14 is an odd number. The number ’14’ is the only EVEN number

Question 30

A train 108 m long moving at a speed of 50 km/hr crosses a train 112 m long coming from opposite direction in 6 seconds. The speed of the second train is?

A	66 km/hr
B	82 km/hr
C	54 km/hr
D	48 km/hr

Question 30 Explanation:

Let the speed of the second train be xkm/hr
Relative speed = (x + 50) km/hr
= [(x + 50) * 5 / 18] m/sec
=[(250 + 5x) / 18] m/sec
Distance covered = (108 + 112) = 220 m
Therefore, (250 + 5x) / 18 = 6
250 + 5x = 660 x = 82 km/hr

Question 31

1.was 2.and 3.Suresh 4.kind 5.loving

A	12345
B	31425
C	15243
D	54213
E	34251

Question 31 Explanation:

Explanation : " Suresh was kind and loving "

Question 32

Four girls are sitting on a bench to be photographed. Shikha is sitting to the left of Reena. Manju is to the right of Reena. Rita is between Reena and Manju. Who would be second from the left in the photograph?

A	Manju
B	Rita
C	Shikha
D	Reena

Question 32 Explanation:

Shikha is to the left of Reena and Manju is to her right.
Rita is between Reena and Manju.
So the order is Shikha ,
Reena , Rita and Manju. In the photograph Rita will be second from left.

Question 33

Which of the following shows the relation that C is the granddaughter of E? The above question is based on the following information:

M % N means M is the son of N.
M @ N means M is the sister of N.
M $ N means M is the father of N.

A	C @ B % F % E
B	B $ F $ E % C
C	C % B $ F $ E
D	E % B $ F $ C

Question 33 Explanation:

C @ B → C is the sister of B
B % F → B is the son of F
Hence, → C is the daughter of F
F % E → F is the son of E
Hence, → C is the granddaughter of E.

Question 34

Find next number of the following sequence 124, 62, 60, 30, 28, 14...?

A	13
B	12
C	7
D	8

Question 34 Explanation:

To find the next sequence
=> 124/2 = 62 & 62 - 2 = 60
=> 60/2=30 & 30 - 2 =28
=> 28/2=14 & 14 - 2 =12

Question 35

Antique?

A	Museum
B	None of these
C	Precious
D	Rarest

Question 35 Explanation:

A collectable object such as a piece of furniture or work of art that has a high value because of its age and quality.

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The post Jumpwhere Aptitude Contest – August 2024 appeared first on JumpWhere.

Jumpwhere Aptitude Contest – July 2024

MS — Sat, 06 Jul 2024 04:55:44 +0000

Instructions for Aptitude Contest – July 2024:

You can select only one option at a time.
You can take the QUIZ multiple times.
Each question will carry 100 points.
There are altogether 30 questions.
After finishing the test, you will get a score message as shown below.
If you score more than 90% you will get a unique code and email id along with the score message.
Take the screenshot of the entire page containing the message along with the unique code generated.
Lucky winners will get exciting goodies/gift from JUMPWHERE. The final decision will be taken by JUMPWHERE TEAM itself.
This contest is available only till 31-July-2024 12:00 PM.
Don’t forget to Like and Follow us on facebook for all the updates.

Aptitude Contest – JULY 2024:

Quiz Contest - July

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Congratulations - you have completed Quiz Contest - July. You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%. Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%

Your answers are highlighted below.

Question 1

PLAIN : AUSTERE :: ?

A	neutral : detached
B	clean : sterile
C	lonely : gloomy
D	deserted : barren

Question 1 Explanation:

(DEGREE OF INTENSITY) Being austere (meaning bare) is a heightened form of being plain; being sterile (meaning free from bacteria or other micro-organisms) is a heightened form of being clean. {The pairs (neutral, detached); (deserted, barren) and (eloquent, talkative) are mere synonyms.} (B)

Question 2

S1. Figure skating is primarily a sport of amateurs. A. For years, the singles competition was judged according to two categories. B. The compulsory – figures category required each skater to perform three or six repetitions of three figures drawn from a possible 41 patterns. C. Contests are held for singles and for pairs. D. The free – skating category judged a skater’s ability to perform jumps, spins, spirals, and skating coordinated with music. S6. All figures are based on a figure – eight pattern or variations thereof.

A	BCAD
B	CDBA
C	ABCD
D	CADB

Question 2 Explanation:

The proper order for the four sentences is CADB

Question 3

Find the odd man out 3, 5, 7, 12, 17, 19?

A	5
B	12
C	17
D	19

Question 3 Explanation:

Each of the numbers is a prime number except 12.

Question 4

All the water in container A which was filled to its brim was poured into two containers B and C. The quantity of water in container B was 62.5% less than the capacity of container A. If 148 liters was now transferred from C to B, then both the containers would have equal quantities of water. What was the initial quantity of water in container A?

A	928
B	648
C	1184
D	888

Question 4 Explanation:

B has 62.5% or (5/8) of the water in A. Therefore, let the quantity of water in container A(initially) be 8k
Quantity of water in B = 8k - 5k = 3k
Quantity of water in container C = 8k - 3k = 5k
Container: A B C
Quantity of water: 8k 3k 5k
It is given that if 148 liters was transferred from container C to container B, then both the containers would have equal quantities of water
5k - 148 = 3k + 148 => 2k = 296 => k = 148
The initial quantity of water in A = 8k = 8 * 148 = 1184 litres

Question 5

Statements: Some cows are crows. Some crows are elephants. Conclusions: I) Some cows are elephants. II) All crows are elephants.

A	Either I or II follow
B	Only Conclusion I follows
C	Only Conclusion II follows
D	Neither I nor II follow

Question 5 Explanation:

Question 6

While the ladies continued their small talk in the drawing room, I felt bored.

A	gossip
B	backbiting
C	whispering
D	light conversation

Question 7

A, B and C invest Rs.50000, Rs.75000 and Rs. 125000 in a business respectively. The profit earned is Rs.20000. Find the profit share of B

A	Rs. 4000
B	Rs. 2000
C	Rs. 10000
D	Rs. 6000

Question 7 Explanation:

Ratio of the share of A, B and C = 50000: 75000:12500 = 2:3:5
B’s share of profit = (3/10)*20000 = Rs. 6000

Question 8

Who is at the extreme left end? Read the following information carefully and answer the question given above

There are five friends
They are standing in a row facing south.
Jayesh is to the immediate right to Alok.
Pramod is between Bhagat and Subodh.
Subodh is between Jayesh and Pramod.

A	Bhagat
B	Alok
C	Data Inadequate
D	Subodh

Question 8 Explanation:

The boys are standing facing south. So, consider left and right accordingly.
Jayesh is to the right of Alok i,e Jayesh, Alok.
Pramod is between Bhagat and Subodh i,e Bhagat, Pramod, Subodh
Subodh is between Jayesh and Pramod.
So, the sequence is Bhagat Pramod Subodh Jayesh Alok
Answer for this question is (a), Alok is at extreme left end

Question 9

If I had the address, I would have delivered the package myself

A	had the address;
B	had had the address
C	had had the address,
D	had the address,
E	had the address -

Question 9 Explanation:

Since this entire conditional-subjunctive sentence construction is in the past, the correct conditional form is past perfect "If I had had" rather than present perfect "if I had" [(A), (B), (C)] with the present perfect subjunctive "I would have."
The correct punctuation between conditional "if" and subjunctive "would" parts is always a comma, never a semicolon [(B), (D)] or a dash (C).

Question 10

Statement : Company X has a record of manufacturing cameras of quality and the latest design so that you do not spoil even a single shot irrespective of the weather conditions.

Conclusions :

I. No other company except X is reputed in camera industry.

II. Acceptable shot with camera of company X can be taken in any weather conditions.

A	Either I or II follows
B	Both I and II follow
C	Only Conclusion I follows
D	Only Conclusion II follows
E	Neither I nor II follows

Question 10 Explanation:

Only Conclusion II follows

Question 11

CONCEDE

A	Refuse
B	Grant
C	Accede
D	Object

Question 11 Explanation:

CONCEDE means admit or agree that something is true after first denying or resisting it.

Question 12

Two stations A and B are 110 km apart on a straight line. One train starts from A at 7 a.m. and travels towards B at 20 kmph. Another train starts from B at 8 a.m. and travels towards A at a speed of 25 kmph. At what time will they meet?

A	10:30 am
B	11 am
C	9 am
D	10 am

Question 12 Explanation:

Suppose they meet x hours after 7 a.m
Distance covered by A in x hours = 20xkm
Distance covered by B in (x - 1) hours = 25(x - 1) km
20x + 25(x - 1) = 110 45x = 135 x = 3.So, they meet at 10 a.m

Question 13

Study the diagram given below and answer "How many persons who take tea and wine but not coffee" ?

A	25
B	15
C	20
D	17

Question 13 Explanation:

17 persons take tea and wine but not coffee

Question 14

A pipe can fill a tank in an hour. Because of a leak, it took 1 hour and 10 minutes to fill the tank. Find the time taken by the leak to drain all the water in the tank?

A	6/7 hrs
B	10 mins
C	7 hrs
D	7/6 hrs

Question 14 Explanation:

Let the leak take x to drain the tank 1hr 10 min = 1+(1/6) = 7/6 hrs
1- (1/x) = 1/ (7/6) = 6/7
Part of tank leaked in an hour = 1-6/7 = 1/7
The leak takes7 hours to drain all the water

Question 15

Find the ratio between the speeds of the boat and stream if the boat can travel 30 km upstream in 3 hours and the same distance downstream in 2 hours?

A	4:1
B	2:3
C	5:1
D	3:2

Question 15 Explanation:

U = 10 kmph
D= 15 kmph
S= (d - u) / 2 = 2.5 kmph
B= (d + u)/2 = 12.5 kmph
b:s = 5:1

Question 16

Which of the following years will have a calendar similar to the year 2011?

A	2020
B	2017
C	2022
D	2016

Question 16 Explanation:

No. of odd days from 2011 to 2022
= 1+2+1+1+1+2+1+1+1+2+1
= 14
Hence, 2022 will have a calendar similar to 2011
The number of odd days increases from 6 to 8 since 2016 is a leap year
Hence 14 odd days are calculated

Question 17

Code of diplomatic etiquette and precedence?

A	Statesmanship
B	Protocol
C	Formalism
D	Hierarchy

Question 17 Explanation:

Protocol means the official procedure or system of rules governing affairs of state or diplomatic occasions.

Question 18

What is the unit digit in 7¹⁰⁵ ?

A	7
B	9
C	1
D	5

Question 18 Explanation:

Unit digit in 7¹⁰⁵ = Unit digit in [ (7⁴)²⁶ x 7 ]
But, unit digit in (7⁴)²⁶ = 1
Unit digit in 7¹⁰⁵ = (1 x 7) = 7

Question 19

Find the ratio between the speeds of the boat and stream if the boat can travel 30 km upstream in 3 hours and the same distance downstream in 2 hours?

A	20 m cube
B	10 m cube
C	100 m cube
D	50 m cube

Question 19 Explanation:

Volume of the cylinder = π r square h = 550 m cube
Volume of the cuboid = 550/11 = 50 m cube

Question 20

A	tell us that how
B	Even after requesting
C	he wolved the problem
D	No error
E	him, he did not

Question 20 Explanation:

tell us how

Question 21

Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence.

Heel 2. Shoulder 3. Skull 4. Neck 5. Knee 6. Chest 7. Thigh 8. Stomach 9. Face 10. Hand.

A	4,7,10,1,9,6,2,5,8,3
B	3,9,4,2,10,6,8,7,5,1
C	3,4,7,9,2,5,8,18,6,1
D	2,4,7,10,1,5,8,9,6,3

Question 21 Explanation:

The correct order is:
Skull Face Neck Shoulder Hand Chest Stomach Thigh Knee Heel
3 9 4 2 10 6 8 7 5 1

Question 22

Broken Reed?

A	Support endlessly
B	Continue support
C	None of the above
D	Support that failed

Question 22 Explanation:

Example : In the time of need, his friend proved a broken reed.

Question 23

In a lottery, there are 10 prizes and 25 blanks. A lottery is drawn at random. What is the probability of getting a prize?

A	2/5
B	2/7
C	1/10
D	5/7

Question 23 Explanation:

P(getting a prize) = 10/(10+25) = 10/35 = 2/7

Question 24

The ratio of the age of pramond and the age of akash is 3:5 and sum of their ages is 80 years. The ratio of their ages after 10 years will be?

A	3:5
B	1:2
C	3:2
D	2:3

Question 24 Explanation:

Let the ages of pramod and akash be 3x and 5x
3x + 5x = 80
8x = 80 ,x = 10
3x=30
5x=50
Ratio of theie age after 10 years = (3x+10) : (5x+10)
=> 40 : 60 = 2 : 3

Question 25

1.at 2.it 3.take 4.once 5.away

A	53214
B	42315
C	32514
D	14352
E	23514

Question 25 Explanation:

Explanation : " Take it away at once "

Question 26

617 + 6.017 + 0.617 + 6.0017 =

A	None of these
B	62.965
C	629.6357
D	6.2963

Question 26 Explanation:

617.00
6.017
0.617
+ 6.0017
--------
629.6357
---------

Question 27

A can do a particular work in 6 days. B can do the same work in 8 days. A and B signed to do it for Rs. 3200. They completed the work in 3 days with the help of C. How much is to be paid to C?

A	600
B	380
C	420
D	400

Question 27 Explanation:

Amount of work A can do in 1 day = 1/6
Amount of work B can do in 1 day = 1/8
Amount of work A + B can do in 1 day = 1/6 + 1/8 = 7/24
Amount of work A + B + C can do = 1/3
Amount of work C can do in 1 day = 1/3 - 7/24 = 1/24
Work A can do in 1 day : work B can do in 1 day : work C can do in 1 day
= 1/6 : 1/8 : 1/24 = 4 : 3 : 1
Amount to be paid to C = 3200 * (1/8) = 400

Question 28

BRIEF

A	Short
B	Little
C	Small
D	Limited

Question 28 Explanation:

BRIEF means a short and concise statement or written item. 6. an outline, the form of which is determined by set rules, of all the possible arguments and information on one side of a controversy: a debater's brief.

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Jumpwhere Aptitude Contest – May 2024

MS — Sun, 05 May 2024 02:30:30 +0000

Instructions for Aptitude Contest – May 2024:

You can select only one option at a time.
You can take the QUIZ multiple times.
Each question will carry 100 points.
There are altogether 30 questions.
After finishing the test, you will get a score message as shown below.
If you score more than 90% you will get a unique code and email id along with the score message.
Take the screenshot of the entire page containing the message along with the unique code generated.
Lucky winners will get exciting goodies/gift from JUMPWHERE. The final decision will be taken by JUMPWHERE TEAM itself.
This contest is available only till 31-May-2024 12:00 PM.
Don’t forget to Like and Follow us on facebook for all the updates.

Aptitude Contest – MAY 2024:

Quiz Contest - May

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Your answers are highlighted below.

Question 1

Study the following figure and answer the question "How many players are neither artists nor doctors"?

A	10
B	25
C	5
D	17

Question 1 Explanation:

The no. of players who are neither artists nor doctors is 25

Question 2

1.I 2.help 3.not 4.you 5.did

A	24351
B	43152
C	45231
D	15324
E	52431

Question 2 Explanation:

Explanation : " I did not help you "

Question 3

Two trains are moving in opposite directions @ 60 km/hr and 90 km/hr. Their lengths are 1.10 km and 0.9 km respectively. The time taken by the slower train to cross the faster train in seconds is?

A	48
B	49
C	45
D	36

Question 3 Explanation:

Relative speed = (60+ 90) km/hr
=(150 * 5 / 18) m/sec
= (125 / 3) m/sec
Distance covered = (1.10 + 0.9) km = 2 km = 2000 m
Required time = (2000 * (3/125) sec = 48 sec

Question 4

From a pack of 52 cards, two cards are drawn together at random. What is the probability of both the cards being kings?

A	1/221
B	1/15
C	25/157
D	35/256

Question 4 Explanation:

Let S be the sample space
Then, n(S) = ⁵²C₂ = (52 x 51) / (2 x1) = 1326
Let E = event of getting 2 kings out of 4
n(E) = ⁴C₂= (4 x 3) / (2 x1) = 6
P(E) = n(E) / n(S) = 6 / 1326 = 1 / 221

Question 5

DISTINCTION

A	Diffusion
B	Different
C	Degree
D	Disagreement

Question 5 Explanation:

DISTINCTION means a difference or contrast between similar things or people.

Question 6

I said to him, “Why are you working so hard”?

A	I asked him why had he been working so hard
B	I asked him why was he working so hard
C	I asked him why he was working so hard
D	I asked him why he had been working so hard

Question 7

Find the odd man out 6, 9, 15, 21, 24, 28, 30 ?

A	24
B	30
C	21
D	28

Question 7 Explanation:

Each of the numbers except 28, is a multiple of 3.

Question 8

Five children are sitting in a row. S is sitting next to P but not T. is sitting next to R who is sitting on extreme left and T is not sitting next to K. Who are sitting adjacent to S?

A	R and P
B	K and P
C	Only C
D	P and T

Question 8 Explanation:

S is sitting next to P. So, the order S, P or P, S is followed. Is sitting next to R. So, the order R, K is followed because R is on the extreme left. T is not next to P or K.
So, the arrangement will be R, K, P, S, T. Clearly, P and T are sitting adjacent to S.

Question 9

P, Q and R can do a work in 20, 30 and 60 days respectively. How many days does it. Need to complete the work if P does the work and he is assisted by Q and R on every third day?

A	9 days
B	14 days
C	15 days
D	10 days

Question 9 Explanation:

Amount of work P can do in 1 day = 1/20
Amount of work Q can do in 1 day = 1/30
Amount of work R can do in 1 day = 1/60
P is working alone and every third day Q and R is helping him
Work completed in every three days = 2 * (1/20) + (1/20 + 1/30 + 1/60) = 1/5
So work completed in 15 days = 5 * 1/5 = 1
I.e, the work will be done in 15 days

Question 10

The curious neighbours were disappointed as the young couple's quarrel was just a storm in a tea cup.

A	brittle situation
B	violent quarrel
C	quarrel about tea cups
D	fuss about a trifle

Question 11

EXPEL : SCHOOL :: ?

A	Exile : Nation
B	Vacate : Building
C	Export : Factory
D	Escape : Penitentiary

Question 11 Explanation:

(CAUSE AND EFFECT) A person expelled from school cannot reenter it; a person exiled (meaning banished legally) from a country cannot reenter it. (B)

Question 12

A, B , C share the profits earned after a year in the ratio of 6:8:9. A was a full-time partner. B had partnered for 4 months and C had partnered for 6 months. Find the ratio of their investments?

A	4 : 2 : 9
B	6 : 8 : 9
C	6 : 8 : 9
D	1 : 4 : 3

Question 12 Explanation:

A*12: B*4:C*6 = 6:8:9
A: B: C = (6/12) : (8/4) : (9/6)
= 1:4:3

Question 13

ESSENTIAL

A	Noughts
B	Minors
C	Trivial
D	Extra

Question 13 Explanation:

ESSENTIAL means absolutely necessary; extremely important

Question 14

A boat can travel 16 km upstream and 24 km downstream in 4 hours. It can travel 24 km upstream and 18 km downstream in 4.5 hours. Find the speed of the boat.

A	2 kmph
B	9 kmph
C	10 kmph
D	12 kmph

Question 14 Explanation:

(16/u) + (24/d) = 4
(24/u) + (18/d) = 4.5
Solving, u = 8, d = 12
b = (u + d)/2 = 10 kmph

Question 15

If I would have known about the team tryouts, I would have signed up for them

A	had been told
B	could of known
C	could have been told
D	had known
E	would have known

Question 15 Explanation:

Conditional-subjunctive ("If...then") constructions set in the past use past perfect ("If I had known") for the conditional, and present perfect ("I would have signed up") for the subjunctive, because "If" comes earlier and "then" later.
Adding the subjunctive "would"/"could" to the conditional as well (B) is incorrect.
Substituting the preposition "of" for the auxiliary verb "have" (C) is always incorrect. "Had been/could have been told" [(C), (D)] differs in meaning from "had known."

Question 16

S1. The new economic policy comprises the various measures and changes introduced since July 1991. A. There is a common thread running through all these measures. B. The objective is simple – to improve the efficiency of the system. C. The regulatory mechanism involving multitude of controls has fragmented the capacity and reduced competition even in the private sector. D. The thrust of the new policy is towards creating a more competitive environment as a means to improving the productivity and efficiency of the economy. S6. This is to be activated by removing the barriers and restrictions on the entry and growth of firms.

A	ABCD
B	DCBA
C	BDAC
D	DCAB

Question 16 Explanation:

The proper order of the four sentences is ABCD

Question 17

Bring to book?

A	To write a story
B	To punish
C	To praise
D	To serve

Question 17 Explanation:

Example : He was brought to book for his mistake.

Question 18

A	Sent by the gardener
B	The basket of apples
C	Green mangoes also
D	Contained a number of
E	No error

Question 18 Explanation:

No error found

Question 19

The policy of extending a country's empire & influence ?

A	Internationalism
B	Capitalism
C	Imperialism
D	Communism

Question 19 Explanation:

Imperialism means a policy of extending a country's power and influence through colonization, use of military force, or other means.

Question 20

Arrange the following in a logical order:

Euphoria 2. Happiness 3. Ambivalence 4. Ecstasy 5. Pleasure

A	2, 1, 3, 4, 5
B	4, 1, 3, 2, 5
C	3, 2, 5, 1, 4
D	3, 2, 5, 1, 4

Question 20 Explanation:

Explanation: All the given words stand for 'Joy', but the intensity increases in the order - Ambivalence, Happiness, Pleasure, Euphoria, Ecstasy.
Thus the correct order is 3, 2, 5, 1, 4.
Hence the answer is (C)

Question 21

A number consist of 3 digits whose sum is 10. The middle digit is equal to the sum of the other two and the number will be increased by 99 if its digits are reversed. The number is..?

A	253
B	370
C	352
D	145

Question 21 Explanation:

Let the digits of the No. be x & y & z
Hence , x + y + z = 10………(1)
x + z = y………(2)
As per the condition
(100z + 10y + x) - (100x + 10y + z) = 99
Solving, the value of (z - x) =1
From equation(1) and (2)
2y = 10, y = 5
So 253 satisfies all the condition

Question 22

A cuboid of length 10m, breadth 5m and height 15m is to be formed using cubes of side 5m. How many such cubes are needed to form the cuboid?

A	50
B	15
C	150
D	6

Question 22 Explanation:

No. of cubes needed
= Volume of the cuboid / volume of a cube
= (10*15*5) / (5*5*5) = 6

Question 23

ABSTAIN

A	Ingest
B	Consume
C	Refrain
D	Take in

Question 23 Explanation:

ABSTAIN means restrain oneself from doing or enjoying something.

Question 24

Statements: All cars are cats. All fans are cats. Conclusions: I) All cars are fans. II) Some fans are cars.

A	Neither I nor II follow
B	Only conclusion I follows
C	Only conclusion II follows
D	Either I or II follow

Question 24 Explanation:

Question 25

The fraction 101 27/100000 in decimal form is ?

A	0.01027
B	101.00027
C	101.000027
D	0.10127

Question 25 Explanation:

101 27/100000 = 101 + (27/100000) = 101 + .00027 = 101.00027

Question 26

Jayant is as much younger to akil as he is older to pranav. If the sum of the age of akil and pranav is 48 years, what is the age of jayant?

A	20
B	24
C	none of these
D	30

Question 26 Explanation:

A - J = J - P
2J = A + P
A + P = 48
2J = 48
J = 24

Question 27

Pipe A and B can fill a tank in 1 hour and1 ¼ hours respectively. Both pipes are opened in the beginning and after some time, pipe B is closed. The tank is filled in 40 minutes. Pipe B was closed after?

A	45 mins
B	25 mins
C	40 mins
D	30 mins

Question 27 Explanation:

Part of tank filled by A in a minute = 1/60
Part of tank filled by B in a minutes =1/75
Let pipe B be closed after x minutes
Part of tank filled in x minutes= x*[(1/60)+(1/75)] = 9x / 300 Part of tank filled in (40-x) minutes = [(40-x)*(1/60)] = (40-x) / 60
(9x / 300) + ((40 - x) / 60) = 1 4x = 100
X= 25

Question 28

In what ratio should a variety of rice costing Rs. 6 per kg be mixed with another variety of rice costing Rs. 8.75 per kg to obtain a mixture costing Rs. 7.50 per kg?

A	5 : 6
B	8 : 9
C	3 : 4
D	7 : 8

Question 28 Explanation:

Let us say the ratio of the quantities of cheaper and dearer varieties = x : y
By the rule of allegation, x/y = (87.5 - 7.50) / (7.50 - 6) = 5/6

Question 29

Statement : All the organised persons find time for rest. Sunita, in-spite of her busy schedule, finds time for rest.

Conclusions :

I. Sunita is an organised person.

II. Sunita is an industrious person.

A	Either I or II follows
B	Only conclusion I follows
C	Only conclusion II follows
D	Neither I nor II follow
E	Both I and II follow

Question 29 Explanation:

Sunita has a busy schedule. This means that she is industrious. But still she finds the time for rest.
This means that she is an organised person. So both conclusions follow.

Question 30

5 days before April 13th 2011 was a Friday. What day was 5 days after April 13th?

A	Friday
B	Monday
C	Tuesday
D	Wednesday

Question 30 Explanation:

10 days after Friday is a Monday
Number of odd days in a 10 day period = 3

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Freshers Job Vacancy- Graduate Engineer Trainee Job Opening at NPCI

admin — Sun, 15 Oct 2023 07:06:44 +0000

National Payments Corporation Of India (NPCI) is hiring for the role of Graduate Engineer Trainee for the Multiple location. Please read the complete information carefully and apply if you are eligible for a Graduate Engineer Trainee Job Opening at NPCI

Eligibility Criteria :

Education: Bachelor of Engineering (Chemical/ Industrial/ Mechanical/
Electrical/ Electronics & Communication)

Job Location: Mumbai, Hyderabad, Chennai

Experience: Fresher

Qualification:

Only candidates who graduated in 2022 or 2023 are eligible.
Candidates must have maintained a consistent academic record with a score of 60% or higher in X, XII, and Graduation.
No active backlogs should be present.
Candidates are required to commit to a minimum service period of 2 years.
Immediate joining is preferred, but there may be a slight delay.

Evaluation Process for Graduate Engineer Trainee Job Opening at NPCI:

Applicants will be subject to assessment and interviews, which will be conducted in two rounds:
- Round 1: This round will involve a Code and Aptitude test.
- Round 2: The second round will consist of a Technical interview followed by a HR interview with slightly extended durations.

Benefits of Joining NPCI:

Career Growth
Innovative Projects
Skill Development
Competitive Pay
Work-Life Balance
Meaningful Contributions
Professional Network
Job Stability
Training Programs
Health & Wellness

IMPORTANT NOTE: There are no hidden fees to apply for this job opening. So any candidate who is eligible can directly apply.

About the Company:

https://www.npci.org.in/

? You can Scan the same link Via the QR Code mentioned in below Image

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Jumpwhere Aptitude Contest – December 2022

MS — Thu, 01 Dec 2022 05:43:00 +0000

Instructions for Jumpwhere Aptitude Contest – December 2022:

You can select only one option at a time.
You can take the QUIZ multiple times.
Each question will carry 100 points.
There are altogether 35 questions.
After finishing the test, you will get a score message as shown below.
If you score more than 90% you will get a unique code and email id along with the score message.
Take the screenshot of the entire page containing the message along with the unique code generated.
Lucky winners will get exciting goodies/gift from JUMPWHERE. The final decision will be taken by JUMPWHERE TEAM itself.
This contest is available only till 31-Dec-2022 12:00 PM.
Don’t forget to Like and Follow us on facebook for all the updates.

Jumpwhere Aptitude Contest – December 2022:

Quiz Contest - December

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Question 1

Statements: I) Importance of Yoga and exercise is being realized by all sections of the society II) There is an increasing awareness about health in the society particularly among middle ages group of people

A	Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes
B	Both the statements I and II are independent causes
C	Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
D	Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
E	Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause

Question 1 Explanation:

As the awareness about health in the society is increasing particularly among middle-aged group of people, the importance of Yoga and exercise is being realized by all sections of the society

Question 2

Statement: Should all Government owned educational institutions be handed over to private institutions ?

Arguments :

I. Yes. Standard of education will improve.

II. No. Standard of education will fall.

A	Either I or II is strong
B	Both I and II are strong
C	Only argument II is strong
D	Only argument I is strong
E	Neither I nor II is strong

Question 2 Explanation:

It is not that the government or the private institutions can provide higher standards of learning.

Question 3

Language ?

A	Writing
B	Tongue
C	Slang
D	Words

Question 3 Explanation:

Explanation: The method of human communication, either spoken or written, consisting of the use of words in a structured and conventional way.

Question 4

Statements: All cups are books. All books are shirts. Conclusions: I) Some cups are not shirts. II) Some shirts are cups.

A	Neither I nor II follow
B	Only conclusion II follows
C	Either I or II follow
D	Only conclusion I follows

Question 4 Explanation:

Question 5

If in a certain code language, 851 means good sweet fruit; 783 means good red rose and 341 means rose and fruit which of the following digits stands for sweet in that language?

A	3
B	1
C	5
D	8

Question 5 Explanation:

In the first and the second statements, the common code digit is 8 and the common word is good. So 8 stands for good. In the first and the third statements, the common code digit is 1 and the common word is fruit. So 1 stands for fruit. Therefore in the first statement, 5 stands for sweet. Hence the answer is (2).

Question 6

Do you know that these gloves have lay on the bureau all week ?

A	would lie on
B	have lay on
C	had laid on
D	have laid on
E	have lain on

Question 6 Explanation:

The present perfect intransitive "to lie" is "have lain," not "have lay" (A), "have laid" (B), or "had laid" (D), which latter two are only transitive, e.g. "She has laid the gloves on the bureau every day" or "I saw a pair of gloves she had laid on the bureau."
The conditional "would lie" (C) is only grammatical with a conditional, e.g. "...would lie on the bureau all week unless you moved them," also conveying a different meaning.

Question 7

Study the following figure and answer the question "How many artists are neither players nor doctors" ?

A	17
B	15
C	30
D	10

Question 7 Explanation:

The number of artists who are neither players nor doctors is 30

Question 8

A	Motorists myst have to
B	while driving along the highways
C	be very cautious
D	In order to save petrol
E	No error

Question 8 Explanation:

Motorists have to

Question 9

The greatest number which on dividing 1657 and 2037 leaves remainders 6 and 5 respectively is :

A	127
B	305
C	235
D	123

Question 9 Explanation:

Required number = H.C.F. of (1657 - 6) and (2037 - 5)
= H.C.F. of 1651 and 2032 = 127.

Question 10

Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence.

Elephant 2. Cat 3. Mosquito 4. Tiger 5. Whale

A	3, 2, 4, 1, 5
B	5, 3, 1, 2, 4
C	1, 3, 5, 4, 2
D	2, 5, 1, 4, 3

Question 10 Explanation:

Explanation: The correct order is :
Mosquito Cat Tiger Elephant Whale 3 2 4 1 5

Question 11

David said to Anna, “Mona will leave for her native place tomorrow.”

A	David told Anna that Mona will leave for her native place tomorrow
B	David told to Anna that Mona would be leaving for her native place tomorrow
C	David told Anna that Mona left for her native place the next day
D	David told Anna that Mona would leave for her native place the next day

Question 12

I) Three pencils cost the same as two erasers. II) Four erasers cost the same as one ruler. III) Pencils are more expensive than rulers. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A	False
B	Uncertain
C	True

Question 12 Explanation:

Rulers are the most expensive item

Question 13

4 mat weavers can weave 4 mats in 4 days. At the same rate, how many mats would be woven by 8 mat weavers in 8 days?

A	17
B	64
C	19
D	16

Question 13 Explanation:

Let the required number of mats be x  More mat weavers, more mats(Direct proportion)  More days, more mats ( Direct proportion)  Mat weavers = 4:8 :: 4 : x  Days = 4:8 :: 4:x  4*4*x=8*8*4  X= (8*8*4) / (4*4)  X= 2*2*4  X= 16

Question 14

Rs. 9800 are invested partly in 9% stock at 75 and 10 % stock at 80 to have equal amount of incomes. The investment in 9% stock is

A	Rs. 5000
B	Rs. 5600
C	Rs. 5400
D	Rs. 4800

Question 14 Explanation:

Let the investment in 9% stock is x Investment in 10% stock = (9800 - x) 9/75 * x = 10/80(9800- x) hence x = 5000

Question 15

BACTERIA : DECOMPOSITION :: ?

A	oxygen : treatment
B	yeast : fermentation
C	volcano : eruption
D	antibiotic : injection

Question 15 Explanation:

(CAUSE AND EFFECT) Bacteria are minute organisms which cause decomposition; yeasts are minute organisms which cause fermentation (meaning chemical reaction induced by living organisms). (C)

Question 16

A sell a bicycle of to B at a profit of 20%. B sell it to C at profit of 25%. If C pays rs. 225 for it, the cost price of the bicycle for A is?

A	125
B	110
C	120
D	150

Question 16 Explanation:

125% of 120% of A = 225
=> 125/100 * 120/100 * A = 225
=> A = (225 * 2/3)
A = 150

Question 17

1.up the 2.the 3.smoke 4.went 5.chimney

A	23514
B	32514
C	23541
D	24315
E	23415

Question 17 Explanation:

Explanation : " The smoke went up the chimney "

Question 18

3, 22, 7, 45, 15, ?, 31

A	35
B	45
C	90
D	91

Question 18 Explanation:

Combination of two series
3, 7, 15, 31
22, 45, ?
The number is doubled and 1 is added to it.
(45*2)+1 = 91

Question 19

In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'CORPORATION' be arranged so that the vowels always come together?

A	50400
B	1440
C	2880
D	810

Question 19 Explanation:

In the word 'CORPORATION', we treat the vowels OOAIO as one letter.
Thus, we have CRPRTN (OOAIO).
This has 7 (6 + 1) letters of which R occurs 2 times and the rest are different.
Number of ways arranging these letters = 7!/2! = 2520.
Now, 5 vowels in which O occurs 3 times and the rest are different, can be arranged
in 5!/3! = 20 ways.
Required number of ways = (2520 x 20) = 50400.

Question 20

125, 80, 45, 20, ?

A	8
B	10
C	12
D	5

Question 20 Explanation:

The pattern is - 45, - 35, - 25, .....
So, missing term = 20 - 15 = 5.

Question 21

Statement: Until our country achieves economic equality, political freedom and democracy would be meaningless.

Conclusions:

I. Political freedom and democracy go hand in hand.

II. Economic equality leads to real political freedom and democracy.

A	Both I and II follow
B	Only conclusion II follows
C	Either I or II follows
D	Only conclusion I follows
E	Neither I nor II follows

Question 21 Explanation:

Nothing about conclusion I is stated in statement. Only conclusion II follows

Question 22

Five girls are sitting in a row , Rashi is not adjacent to Sulekha or Abha.Anuradha is not adjacent to Sulekha. Rashi is adjacent to Monika. Monika is at the middle in the row. Then, Anuradha is adjacent to whom out of the following?

A	Sulekha
B	Monika
C	Abha
D	Rashi

Question 22 Explanation:

Clearly, the order is Anuradha, Rashi, Monika, Abha. Anuradha is adjacent to Rashi

Question 23

apples	fruit	supermarket
novel	book	?

A	Vegetable
B	Magazine
C	Shopping
D	Book-store

Question 23 Explanation:

The relationship above the line is as follows; apples are a kind of fruit; fruit is sold in a supermarket. Below the line, the relationship is: a novel is a kind of book; books are sold in a bookstore.

Question 24

1.not 2.Harry 3.away 4.run 5.did

A	25143
B	52431
C	35412
D	21345
E	13542

Question 24 Explanation:

Explanation : " Harry did not run away "

Question 25

Of outstanding significance ?

A	Ominous
B	Evident
C	Monumental
D	Rational

Question 25 Explanation:

Monumental means great in importance, extent, or size.

Question 26

Statement: A large number of people die every year due to drinking polluted water during the summer. Courses of Action: I) The government should make adequate arrangements to provide safe drinking water to all its citizens. II) The people should be educated about the dangers of drinking polluted water.

A	Neither I nor II follow
B	Only II follows
C	Both I and II follow
D	Either I or II follows
E	Only I follows

Question 26 Explanation:

The situation demands creating awareness among people about the dangers of drinking polluted water so that they themselves refrain from the same, and at the same time taking steps to provide safe drinking water.
So, both the courses follow.

Question 27

The difference between SI and CI compounded annually on a certain sum of money for 2 years at 8% per annum is Rs. 12.80. Find the principal?

A	Rs. 1500
B	Rs. 5000
C	Rs. 1000
D	Rs. 2000

Question 27 Explanation:

Let the principal amount be x
SI = x * 2 * 8 / 100 = 4x / 25
CI = x[1+ 8 / 100]² – x = 104x / 625
Therefore, 104x / 625 – 4x / 25 = 12.80
Solving which gives x, Principal = Rs. 2000

Question 28

Two number are in the ratio 3 : 5. If 9 is subtracted from each, the new numbers are in the ratio 12 : 23. The smaller number is?

A	55
B	27
C	33
D	49

Question 28 Explanation:

Let the numbers be 3x and 5x
Then, 3x - 9 / 5x - 9 = 12 / 23
23 (3x - 9) = 12 (5x - 9)
9x = 99
x = 11
The smaller number = (3 x 11) = 33

Question 29

A fruit seller had some apples. He sells 40% apples and still has 420 apples. Originally, he had:

A	600 apples
B	700 apples
C	588 apples
D	672 apples

Question 29 Explanation:

Suppose originally he had x apples.
Then, (100 - 40)% of x = 420.
60/100 x x = 420
x = (420 x 100)/60 = 700.

Question 30

VITUPERATE

A	Encourage
B	Appreciate
C	Copy
D	Abuse

Question 30 Explanation:

VITUPERATE means blame or insult (someone) in strong or violent language.

Question 31

Statement: In the recently held All India Commerce Conference the session on 'Management of Service Sector in India' surprisingly attracted large number of participants and also received a very good media coverage in the leading newspapers. Assumptions I) People were not expecting such an encouraging response for service sector. II) Service sector is not managed properly in India. III) Media is always very positive towards service sector.

A	Only II is implicit
B	Only II and III are implicit
C	None is implicit
D	Only I is implicit
E	All are implicit

Question 31 Explanation:

Since the response was 'surprising', so I is implicit.
Nothing about the real management of service sector can be deduced from the statement. So, II is not implicit.
Also, the statement talks of the media's response to only a particular session on service sector and not all in general. So, III is also not implicit.

Question 32

FICKLE

A	Steadfast
B	Humble
C	Courageous
D	Sincere

Question 32 Explanation:

FICKLE means changing frequently, especially as regards one's loyalties or affections.

Question 33

Blaze the trail ?

A	To stop a movement
B	To start a movement
C	To protect a movement
D	To join a movement

Question 33 Explanation:

Example : All great people names are written in history who blazed the trail for their nations.

Question 34

One morning after sunrise, Suresh was standing facing a pole. The shadow of the pole fell exactly to his right. To which direction was he facing?

A	East
B	West
C	South
D	Data is inadequate

Question 34 Explanation:

Sun rises in the east in the morning
Since the shadow of Suresh falls to his right
So he is facing South

Question 35

If A is the brother of B; B is the sister of C; C is the father of D, how is D related to A ?

A	Sister
B	Brother
C	Cannot be determined
D	Nephew

Question 35 Explanation:

If D is Male, the answer is Nephew.
If D is Female, the answer is Niece.
As the sex of D is not known, hence, the relation between D and A cannot be determined.
Note: Niece - A daughter of one's brother or sister, or of one's brother-in-law or sister-in-law.
Nephew - A son of one's brother or sister, or of one's brother-in-law or sister-in-law

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Jumpwhere Aptitude Contest – November 2022

MS — Tue, 01 Nov 2022 05:59:32 +0000

Instructions for Jumpwhere Aptitude Contest – November 2022:

You can select only one option at a time.
You can take the QUIZ multiple times.
Each question will carry 100 points.
There are altogether 35 questions.
After finishing the test, you will get a score message as shown below.
If you score more than 90% you will get a unique code and email id along with the score message.
Take the screenshot of the entire page containing the message along with the unique code generated.
Lucky winners will get exciting goodies/gift from JUMPWHERE. The final decision will be taken by JUMPWHERE TEAM itself.
This contest is available only till 30-Nov-2022 12:00 PM.
Don’t forget to Like and Follow us on facebook for all the updates.

Jumpwhere Aptitude Contest – November 2022:

Quiz Contest - November

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Congratulations - you have completed Quiz Contest - November. You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%. Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%

Your answers are highlighted below.

Question 1

Find the odd man out 396, 462, 572, 427, 671, 264, ?

A	427
B	264
C	671
D	396

Question 1 Explanation:

In each number except 427, the middle digit is the sum of other two

Question 2

What is the probability of getting a sum 9 from two throws of a dice ?

A	1/6
B	1/9
C	1/8
D	1/12

Question 2 Explanation:

In two throws of a dice, n(S) = (6 x 6) = 36
Let E = event of getting a sum ={(3, 6), (4, 5), (5, 4), (6, 3)}
Therefore, n(E) / n(S) = 4 / 36 = 1/ 9

Question 3

rule	command	dictate
doze	sleep	?

A	Govern
B	Hibernate
C	Snoar
D	Awaken

Question 3 Explanation:

Question 4

A wooden cube of volume 216 m³ is cut into smaller cubes each of whose side measure 2m. How many smaller cubes have been formed?

A	108
B	54
C	6
D	27

Question 4 Explanation:

Volume of the smaller cubes = a cube = 8m cube
Number of cubes = 216/8 = 27

Question 5

A	80 m
B	100 m
C	260 m
D	140 m

Question 5 Explanation:

Question 6

Three numbers which are co-prime to each other are such that the product of the first two is 551 and that of the last two is 1073. The sum of the three numbers is:

A	75
B	65
C	85
D	60

Question 6 Explanation:

Question 7

A	445
B	86
C	2676
D	2

Question 7 Explanation:

This is a number series problem
1, 2,6,21,86,445,2676
The wrong term has to be found out
1 *1+1 = 2
2*2 + 2 = 6
6*3+3 = 21
21*4+4 =88
88*5+5 =445
Hence, 86 is wrong. It should be 88

Question 8

( 0.0203 * 2.92 ) / ( 0.0073 * 14.5 * 0.7 ) = ?

A	0.8
B	3.25
C	2.4.
D	1.45

Question 8 Explanation:

(0.0203 x 2.92) / (0.0073 x 14.5 x 0.7) = (203 x 292) / (73 x 145 x 7) = 4/5 = 0.8

Question 9

Statement : Should the tuition fees in all post graduate courses be hiked considerably ?

Arguments :

I. Yes. This will bring some kind of seriousness among the students and will improve quality.

II. No. This will force the meritorious poor students to stay away from post-graduate courses.

A	Both I and II are strong
B	Only argument II is strong
C	Either I or II is strong
D	Neither I nor II is strong
E	Only argument I is strong

Question 9 Explanation:

Clearly seriousness among the students is not because of fees but second argument is strong

Question 10

A	Only I is implicit
B	Only II is implicit
C	Only I and II are implicit
D	Only I implicit
E	Only II and III are implicit

Question 10 Explanation:

Question 11

Two students appeared at an examination. One of them secured 9 marks more than the other and his marks was 56% of the sum of their marks. The marks obtained by them are:

A	39, 30
B	41, 32
C	42, 33
D	43, 34

Question 11 Explanation:

Let their marks be (x + 9) and x.
Then, x + 9 = 56/100 (x + 9 + x)
25(x + 9) = 14(2x + 9)
3x = 99
x = 33
So, their marks are 42 and 33.

Question 12

A	ACBD
B	BACD
C	BCAD
D	ADCB

Question 12 Explanation:

The proper order of the four sentences is BCAD

Question 13

A start a business investing Rs.40000.B joins him after 4 months. After a year, they divide the profit earned in the ratio of 6:5. How much did B invest?

A	Rs. 50000
B	Rs. 45000
C	Rs. 48000
D	Rs. 60000

Question 13 Explanation:

[(12*40000)/8x] = 6/5
Solving the equation, x = Rs. 50000

Question 14

The fourth proportional to 5, 8, 15 is ?

A	18
B	19
C	24
D	20

Question 14 Explanation:

Let the fourth proportional to 5, 8, 15 be x
Then, 5 : 8 : 15 : x
5x = (8 x 15)
x = (8 x 15) / 5 = 24

Question 15

There has been bad blood between the two communities even before shouting.

A	Impure blood
B	Quarrels
C	Bloody fights
D	Ill feeling

Question 16

A	P + S x N - Q
B	P - M + N x Q
C	Q - S % P
D	Q - N + M x P

Question 16 Explanation:

• P - M → P is the brother of M
• M + N → M is the mother of N
• N x Q → N is the sister of Q
Therefore, P is the maternal uncle of Q.

Question 17

If tee see pee means drink fruit juice, see kee lee means juice is sweet, and lee ree mee means he is intelligent, which word in that language means sweet?

A	see
B	tee
C	pee
D	kee
E	lee

Question 17 Explanation:

Question 18

A	9(3/5) days
B	9(2/5) days
C	9(1/5) days
D	10 days

Question 18 Explanation:

Question 19

Between June 1990 and February 1993, how many months have 31 days ?

A	20
B	18
C	19
D	17

Question 19 Explanation:

In a year, 7 months have 31 days
From Jun ’90 to Feb ‘93
(4 in ‘90) + (7 in ‘91) + (7 in ‘92) + (1 in ‘93) = 19

Question 20

In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'LEADING' be arranged in such a way that the vowels always come together?

A	360
B	720
C	5040
D	480

Question 20 Explanation:

Question 21

The time taken by a boat to travel upstream is twice the time taken by it to travel downstream. If the speed of the boat in still water is 9 kmph, find the rate of current?

A	3 kmph
B	2.5 kmph
C	2 kmph
D	Data insufficient

Question 21 Explanation:

The downstream speed should be twice the upstream speed
9+x = 2*(9-x)
X= 3

Question 22

A	Only II follows
B	Both I and II follow
C	Only I follows
D	Either I or II follows
E	Neither I nor II follow

Question 22 Explanation:

The statement mentions that the commercial banks violate a directive issued by the RBI.
The remedy is only to make the banks implement the Act.
So, none of the courses follows

Question 23

A piece of ribbon 4 yards long is used to make a bow requiring 15 inches of ribbon for each. What is the maximum number of bows that can be made?

A	8
B	9
C	10
D	11

Question 23 Explanation:

To find maximum number of bows that can be made
1 yard = 36 inches
4 yards = 4*36=144 inches
No.of maximum bows that can be made = 144/15 = 9.6
So maximum 9 bows can be made

Question 24

A	40
B	52
C	44
D	48

Question 24 Explanation:

Question 25

A 6% stock yields 8%. The market value of the stock is

A	Rs. 48
B	Rs. 133.33
C	Rs. 96
D	Rs. 75

Question 25 Explanation:

For an income of Rs. 8, Investment = Rs. 100 For an income of Rs. 6, investment = Rs. 100/8 * 6 = Rs. 75 Market value of Rs. 100 stock = Rs. 75

Question 26

The sum of the ages of A and B is 45 years. Five years ago, the product of their ages was four times the age of A at that time. The present ages of A and B, Respectively are?

A	39 years
B	25 years
C	36 years
D	None of these

Question 26 Explanation:

A+B=45 (A-5)(B-5) = 4(A-5)
B - 5 = 4
B = 9 A = 36

Question 27

Writing ?

A	Pen
B	Author
C	Skills
D	Novel

Question 27 Explanation:

Explanation: The activity or occupation of composing text for publication.

Question 28

In the series 2, 6, 18, 54,.... what will be the 8th term ?

A	4374
B	7434
C	7443
D	4370

Question 28 Explanation:

Clearly, 2 x 3 = 6, 6 x 3 = 18, 18 x 3 = 54,....
. So, the series is a G.P. in which a = 2, r = 3.
Therefore 8th term = ar8-1 = ar7 = 2 x 37 = (2 x 2187) = 4374.

Question 29

Statements: I) A huge truck overturned on the middle of the road last night II) The police had cordoned of entire area in the locality this morning for half of the day

A	Both the statement I and II are effects of independent causes
B	Both the statement I and II are effects of some common cause
C	Both the statement I and II are independent causes
D	Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
E	Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect

Question 29 Explanation:

Since a huge truck overturned on the middle of the road last night
so, the police had cordoned off the entire area in the locality last morning for half of the day

Question 30

A vender by selling 12 toffee for a rupee. A man loses 20%. How many for a rupee should he sell to get a gain of 20%?

A	12
B	10
C	20
D	8

Question 30 Explanation:

12 toffee for rs 1 loss 20% then
C.P = 1 * 100/80 = 5/4 on this price we have to gain profit of 20%
So, 5/4 * 120/100 = 3/2
If for Rs. 2/3 we have 12 toffee then for rs 1 we have
= 12 x 2/3
= 8

Question 31

A train 125 m long passes a man, running at 5 km/hr in the same direction in which the train is going, in 10 seconds. The speed of the train is?

A	45 km/hr
B	50 km/hr
C	55 km/hr
D	54 km/hr

Question 31 Explanation:

Question 32

A	False
B	True
C	Uncertain

Question 32 Explanation:

There is not enough information to verify the third statement

Question 33

A	200 minutes
B	178 minutes
C	167 minutes
D	180 minutes

Question 33 Explanation:

Question 34

Find the simple interest on Rs. 5000 at a certain rate if the compound interest on the same amount for 2 years is Rs. 253.125?

A	Rs. 500
B	Rs. 250
C	Rs. 100
D	Rs. 400

Question 34 Explanation:

Question 35

Running at the same constant rate, 6 identical machines can produce a total of 270 bottles per minutes. At this rate, how many bottles could 10 such machines produce in 4 minutes?

A	1600
B	1964
C	1500
D	1800

Question 35 Explanation:

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Hackathon – Tech Aptitude Challenge 2022

admin — Sat, 08 Oct 2022 11:30:20 +0000

Everything You Need to Know about the Tech Aptitude Challenge 2022:

TechGig Geek Goddess – India’s biggest women-only coding contest aims to bring women coders to the forefront and showcase their talent to top IT/Tech companies.
This year’s edition hosts three exciting coding genres – Coding contest, Tech Aptitude Challenge 2022, IOT challenge & many more.
The Tech Aptitude Challenge is your opportunity to be a Winner every week. So, don’t miss out and crack these 25 questions.

Deadlines for Tech Aptitude Challenge 2022:

Challenge Ends on : 24 Oct 22, 11:55:00 PM IST

Eligibility Criteria:

There are or are 25 Multiple Choice Questions.
Candidates can participate for unlimited times. Only your best score counts!
You will be able to access the problem statement once you click the “Solve Problem” button.
The time duration of the test is 30 Mins.
If your session expires for any reason whatsoever, you can come back and retake the test, which will start from the beginning.
Winners of the contest will be chosen solely at their discretion. Please ensure to update your profile and contact details.
In order to claim your prizes, your TechGig profile must be completed by more than 70%.

Prize:

The weekly Top scorer will win Amazon E-Gift Vouchers of Rs. 1000

IMPORTANT NOTE: There are no hidden fees to apply for this job opening so any candidate who is eligible can directly apply.

About the Company:

https://www.techgig.com/

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Fresher Jobs – Trainee Engineer Job Opening at Microland.

admin — Sat, 10 Sep 2022 08:30:29 +0000

Microland is hiring for a Trainee Engineer for Bangalore/Pune location. Please read the entire information carefully and apply if you are eligible for Trainee Engineer Job Opening at Microland.

Eligibility Criteria for Trainee Engineer Job Opening at Microland.

Education: B.Com in Any Specialization, B.Sc in Any Specialization, 
B.B.A/ B.M.S in Any Specialization, BCA in Any Specialization

Job Location: Bangalore/Pune

Experience: Fresher

Total Earning Potential (TEP): INR 3,15,000 per annum 
+ 35,000 Retention Bonus after 1 year

Important Information:

Eligibility Norms Any Non-Engineering graduate (BCA/BSC/BCOM/BBA/BBM etc.)
Minimum of 60% passing percentage in class 10th, 12th, and Graduation with no current backlogs
Should have graduate in the year 2022
Should have completed final semester Exams
Must be flexible to work in Bangalore/Pune (work location Post COVID19 Pandemic)
Should be available to join by end of September 2022

Job Description For Trainee Engineer:

End to end trouble shooting End user services network issue
Provide support on Outlook related issues and Windows OS related issues
Coordinating with Vendors to troubleshoot on assets which are in Warranty
Preparing SLA/Performance reports and meeting with Customers to manage regular
operation
Should be ready to work in 24×7 environment.
Ticket handling
Address user tickets regarding hardware, software and networking
Prepare, implement and verify the configuration and integration of a Node /system/services
Emergency Handling and chronology preparation
Coordinating with care/vendor team for handling resolved cases
Interfacing with other Technical Teams
Installing and upgrading operating systems and computer software.
Coordinating with field team if onsite support required on faults
Hand over and activity sheet preparation
Ability to identify problems and act accordingly as per defined CM process
Ensuring Post check of activities done during MW period.
Experience in trouble shooting of configuration related issues.
Preparation of script and Impact analysis for changes that needs to be done in network.
Conduct remote troubleshooting
Ensuring coordination with cross-functional teams (if any) for various issues during any
configuration changes.

Candidates who are selected will need to sign a Training Indemnity Agreement for a period of 24 months.

Selection Process

Aptitude test: 30 minutes are anticipated
Soft Skill Assessment : is expected to last 30 minutes.
Language Assessment (British Council): will last for 40 minutes.
HR Interview

Training Process

The training is either conducted at our office premises, or at common location or online (basis covid-19 situation).
Hence it is very important that the candidate have laptop/desktop at their residence with an internet facility and capability to take up the training classes online.
Traineeship period of 5-6 months would include the following:
- 2 months of classroom training
- 2-4 months of On-the-Job Training (OJT)

IMPORTANT NOTE: There are no hidden fees to appofly for this job opening. So any candidate who is eligible can directly apply.

About the Company:

Click Here To Apply for Trainee Engineer Job Opening

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