Verbal Ability Archives - JumpWhere https://jumpwhere.com/category/aptitude/verbal-ability/ Job Openings, Job tips, Interview tips, Aptitude questions, Freshers Job Openings in Bangalore Sat, 01 Nov 2025 11:01:51 +0000 en-US hourly 1 https://wordpress.org/?v=6.6.1 https://jumpwhere.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/10/fav.png Verbal Ability Archives - JumpWhere https://jumpwhere.com/category/aptitude/verbal-ability/ 32 32 Verbal Analogies https://jumpwhere.com/verbal-analogies/ Sat, 16 Sep 2017 23:23:07 +0000 https://jumpwhere.com/?p=2327 Explanation/ Important formulas Instruction: Each question consist of two words which have a certain relationship to each other followed by four pairs of related words, Select the pair which has the same relationship. Instructions to take Aptitude Test Click on start to start taking the test.Click on the option (A, B, C or D) to […]

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Instruction:

Each question consist of two words which have a certain relationship to each other followed by four pairs of related words, Select the pair which has the same relationship.

Click on start to start taking the test.
Click on the option (A, B, C or D) to figure out the right answer.
You can answer multiple times till you get the right answer.
Once you get the right answer, explanations (if any) for the same will be showcased down.
On click of list, you get to see total no of questions, no of questions you answered and no of questions pending to answer.
On click of question number you will go to that particular question.
On click of END your test will end.
On click of ‘Get Results’ you will get to see correct answer for each questions.

Verbal Analogies – Question and Answers

Congratulations – you have completed Verbal Analogies – Question and Answers. You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%. Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
RETICENT : TALK :: ?
A
abstemious : devour
B
tasteless : savor
C
likely : conjecture
D
cranky: grumble
Question 1 Explanation: 
(ANTONYM VARIANT) A reticent (meaning reserved in style) person does not talk; an abstemious (meaning given to eating in moderation) person-does not devour (meaning eat like a glutton).
(A) {The related antonym relationship is;reticent: talkative :: abstemious : devour}
Question 2
SHARD : POTTERY :: ?
A
hill: cliff
B
ash : fire
C
hair : wig
D
splinter: wood
Question 2 Explanation: 
(PART AND THE WHOLE) A shard is a broken piece of pottery; a splinter is a broken piece of wood. (A wig is made up of a number of hairs.
You cannot say that wood is made up of splinters, or pottery is made up of shards.) (D)
Question 3
HATCH : HOLD :: ?
A
rudder : anchor
B
boat : barge
C
courtyard : terrace
D
door : room
Question 3 Explanation: 
(PART AND THE WHOLE) One enters a hold (of a ship) through the hatch; one enters a room through the door. (D)
Question 4
EXPEL : SCHOOL :: ?
A
export : factory
B
exile : nation
C
escape : penitentiary
D
vacate : building
Question 4 Explanation: 
(CAUSE AND EFFECT) A person expelled from school cannot reenter it; a person exiled (meaning banished legally) from a country cannot reenter it. (B)
Question 5
BACTERIA : DECOMPOSITON :: ?
A
volcano : eruption
B
antibiotic : injection
C
yeast : fermentation
D
oxygen : treatment
Question 5 Explanation: 
(CAUSE AND EFFECT) Bacteria are minute organisms which cause decomposition; yeasts are minute organisms which cause fermentation (meaning chemical reaction induced by living organisms). (C)
Question 6
PLAIN : AUSTERE :: ?
A
neutral : detached
B
clean : sterile
C
lonely : gloomy
D
deserted : barren
Question 6 Explanation: 
(DEGREE OF INTENSITY) Being austere (meaning bare) is a heightened form of being plain; being sterile (meaning free from bacteria or other micro-organisms) is a heightened form of being clean. {The pairs (neutral, detached); (deserted, barren) and (eloquent, talkative) are mere synonyms.} (B)
Question 7
SEDATIVE : SLEEP :: ?
A
challenging : knowledge
B
mnemonic : memory
C
dramatic : story
D
vocal : eloquence
Question 7 Explanation: 
(THIHG AND PURPOSE) A sedative acts as an aid to sleep; a mnemonic (such as V1BGYOR, a word made of the first letters of the sequential colors of the rainbow) acts as an aid to memory. (B)
Question 8
STUTTER : SPEECH :: ?
A
blare : hearing
B
aroma : smell
C
astigmatism : sight
D
novocain : touch
Question 8 Explanation: 
(DEFINITION) (A reference to the first words in the answer choices shows that stutter has been used as a noun in this question.)
Stutter (meaning a speech impediment) is a defect in speech, astigmatism (meaning a visual defect) is a defect in sight. (C)
Question 9
PALATE : MOUTH :: ?
A
rainbow : sky
B
rivulet: dam
C
hill: range
D
ceiling : room
Question 9 Explanation: 
(DEFINITION) Palate is the roof of the mouth; ceiling is the roof of the room. (D)
Question 10
LAVA : VOLCANO :: ?
A
ice : glass
B
cascade : precipice
C
steam : geyser
D
avalanche : ice
Question 10 Explanation: 
(DEFINING CHARACTERSTIC) A volcano gives out lava (meaning molten rock); a geyser (meaning a natural hot spring) gives out steam.
Question 11
REFEREE : FIELD :: ?
A
experimenter: result
B
arbitrator: deadlock
C
gladiator: rignt
D
judge : courtroom
Question 11 Explanation: 
(DEFINING CHARACTERSTIC) A volcano gives out lava (meaning molten rock); a geyser (meaning a natural hot spring) gives out steam.
Question 12
COMPREHEND : UNINTELLIGIBLE :: ?
A
swallow : edible
B
circumvent: risky
C
accumulate : insignmcant
D
control : ungovernable
Question 12 Explanation: 
(ANTONYM VARIANT) Anything that cannot be comprehended (meaning understood) is unintelligible; anything that cannot be controlled is ungovernable.(D) {the related antonym relationship is comprehensible: unintelligible :: controllable: ungovernable}
Question 13
APOLOGIZE : PENITENT :: ?
A
worsen : haughty
B
countersign : venerable
C
extenuate : blameworthy
D
appreciate : impressed
Question 13 Explanation: 
(DEFINING CHARACTERISTIC) A person who is penitent (meaning regretful) apologizes readily; a person who is impressed (meaning favorably affected) appreciates readily. (D)
Question 14
SHIP : LOG :: ?
A
individual : diary
B
inventory : emporium
C
catalog : team
D
bulletin : incident
Question 14 Explanation: 
(THING AND PURPOSE) The purpose of a log is to chronologically record the movements of a ship; the purpose of a diary is to chronologically record the doings of a person. (A)
Question 15
ELEGY : POETRY :: ?
A
parable : story
B
dirge : music
C
harp : string
D
rhyme : sound
Question 15 Explanation: 
(DEFINITION) An elegy is mournful poetry; a dirge is mournful music. (B)
Question 16
EULOGY : PRAISE :: ?
A
paean : difficulty
B
encomium : censure
C
requiem : happiness
D
elegy : mourning
Question 16 Explanation: 
(DEFINITION) A eulogy is a speech praising a dead person; an elegy is a poem mourning a dead person. (D)
Question 17
ILL – MANNERED : BOOR :: ?
A
generous : monarch
B
naive : dupe
C
quarrelsome : lawyer
D
spontaneous : extrovert
Question 17 Explanation: 
(DEFINING CHARACTERISTIC) A boor (meaning a person with no refinement) is ill-mannered; a dupe (meaning an easily deceived person) is naive (meaning lacking in worldliness). (B)
Question 18
FALLOW : FIELD :: ?
A
burnished : surface
B
idle : machinery
C
contaminated : water
D
polished : metal
Question 18 Explanation: 
(DEFINITION) Field that is left fallow (meaning unseeded) does not produce crops; machinery that is left idle does not produce goods. (B)
Question 19
MARGIN : PAGE :: ?
A
step : ladder
B
stalk : plant
C
water : bowl
D
outskirts : town
Question 19 Explanation: 
(DEFINITION) The margin forms the outer periphery of a page; the outskirts form the outer periphery of a town. (D)
Question 20
XENOPHOBE : FOREIGNERS :: ?
A
patriot : motherland
B
conservative : government
C
boor : children
D
misanthrope : people
Question 20 Explanation: 
(DEFINING CHARACTERISTIC) A xenophobe hates foreigners; a misanthrope hates people. (D)
Question 21
HONEST : CHEAT :: ?
A
pliable : betray
B
deceitful : scheme
C
irritable : retaliate
D
implacable : compromise
Question 21 Explanation: 
(DEFINING CHARACTERISTIC) An honest person does not cheat; an implacable (meaning unyielding ) person does not compromise. (D)
Question 22
MEANDER : DASH :: ?
A
throw : catch
B
hit : assault
C
sail : glide
D
waft : plummet
Question 22 Explanation: 
(DEGREE OF INTENSITY) Dashing (meaning rushing violently)is an intensified form of meandering (meaning wandering aimlessly); plummeting (meaning falling abruptly downward ) is an intensified form of wafting (meaning drifting gently in the air).(D)
Question 23
FRAGMENT : BONE :: ?
A
quartz : stone
B
rim : wheel
C
ash : coal
D
shard : pottery
Question 23 Explanation: 
(CAUSE AND EFFECT) Distillation (meaning a physical process of evaporating and condensing a liquid) increases purity; leavening (meaning an agent that causes raising or fermentation ) increases volume. (A)
Question 24
BACTERIUM : MEDIUM :: ?
A
meadow : grass
B
snake : egg
C
parasite : host
D
predator: den
Question 24 Explanation: 
(DEFINING CHARACTERISTIC) A connoisseur (meaning a person of informed and discriminating taste) is known for his taste; an altruist (meaning a person with unselfish concern for the welfare of others) is known for his selflessness. (B)
Question 25
ENERVATE : VIGOUR :: ?
A
change : substance
B
vindicate : crime
C
verify : validity
D
adulterate : purity
Question 25 Explanation: 
(THING AND PURPOSE) An alias (meaning a fictitious name ) is used to mislead another; an epithet (meaning a contemptuous nickname ) is used to disparage (meaning insult) another. (D)
Question 26
PEDANTIC : LEARNED :: ?
A
simplistic : guileless
B
moralistic : principled
C
positivistic : experimental
D
biased : prejudiced
Question 26 Explanation: 
(DEFINITION ) To conspire means to plot together; to cohabit means to reside together(A)
Question 27
VAPORIZED : HEAT :: ?
A
diffused : gas
B
hardened: pressure
C
purified : distillate
D
abraded : friction
Question 27 Explanation: 
(DEFINING CHARACTERISTIC) A vigilant (meaning alert) person cannot be easily ambushed (meaning attacked from a hidden position); alert (meaning watchful) person cannot be easily gulled (meaning cheated). (D)
Question 28
TRIM : HAIR :: ?
A
harvest: corn
B
prune : hedge
C
clip : bouquet
D
pluck: flower
Question 28 Explanation: 
(ACTION AND PURPOSE ) Hair is trimmed in order to make it shorter; hedge is pruned in order to make it shorter. (B)
Question 29
CRINGE : DREAD :: ?
A
fidget : nervousness
B
obstruct : disappointment
C
entertain : amusement
D
suspect : anxiety
Question 29 Explanation: 
(CAUSE AND ITS EFFECT ) One cringes (meaning shrinks back in fear) because of dread (meaning terror); one fidgets (meaning behaves in a restless manner) because of nervousness.
Question 30
BRAKE : RETARD :: ?
A
file : gather
B
bump : dent
C
surmise : attune
D
shunt : divert
Question 30 Explanation: 
(SYNONYMS) To brake and to retard are synonyms (both meaning to cause something to move slowly); to divert and to shunt are synonyms (both meaning to cause something to move in a different course).(D)
Once you are finished, click the button below. Any items you have not completed will be marked incorrect. Get Results
There are 30 questions to complete.

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]]> Synonyms https://jumpwhere.com/synonyms/ Fri, 15 Sep 2017 23:22:45 +0000 https://jumpwhere.com/?p=2333 Explanation/ Important formulas Instruction: Find a word or phrase that means exactly or nearly the same as another word or phrase in the same language, for example shut is a synonym of close. Instructions to take Aptitude Test Click on start to start taking the test.Click on the option (A, B, C or D) to figure out the […]

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]]>

Instruction:

Find a word or phrase that means exactly or nearly the same as another word or phrase in the same language, for example shut is a synonym of close.

Click on start to start taking the test.
Click on the option (A, B, C or D) to figure out the right answer.
You can answer multiple times till you get the right answer.
Once you get the right answer, explanations (if any) for the same will be showcased down.
On click of list, you get to see total no of questions, no of questions you answered and no of questions pending to answer.
On click of question number you will go to that particular question.
On click of END your test will end.
On click of ‘Get Results’ you will get to see correct answer for each questions.

Synonyms – Question and Answers

Congratulations – you have completed Synonyms – Question and Answers. You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%. Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
UNCOUTH
A
Ungraceful
B
Rough
C
Slovenly
D
Dirty
Question 1 Explanation: 
UNCOUTH means lacking good manners, refinement, or grace.
Question 2
COMMENSURATE
A
Measurable
B
Proportionate
C
Begining
D
Appropriate
Question 2 Explanation: 
COMMENSURATE means Corresponding in size or degree; in proportion.
Question 3
DEBACLE
A
Collapse
B
Decline
C
Defeat
D
Disgrace
Question 3 Explanation: 
DEBACLE means a sudden and ignominious failure; a fiasco.
Question 4
DISTINCTION
A
Diffusion
B
Disagreement
C
Different
D
Degree
Question 4 Explanation: 
DISTINCTION means a difference or contrast between similar things or people.
Question 5
VITUPERATE
A
Abuse
B
Appreciate
C
Copy
D
Encourage
Question 5 Explanation: 
VITUPERATE means blame or insult (someone) in strong or violent language.
Question 6
BRIEF
A
Small
B
Short
C
Little
D
Limited
Question 6 Explanation: 
BRIEF means a short and concise statement or written item. 6. an outline, the form of which is determined by set rules, of all the possible arguments and information on one side of a controversy: a debater’s brief.
Question 7
EMBEZZLE
A
Remunerate
B
Clear
C
Balance
D
Misappropriate
Question 7 Explanation: 
EMBEZZLE means steal or misappropriate (money placed in one’s trust or belonging to the organization for which one works).
Question 8
PRECARIOUS
A
Safe
B
Brittle
C
Perilous
D
Unsafe
Question 8 Explanation: 
PRECARIOUS means not securely held or in position; dangerously likely to fall or collapse.
Question 9
DELEGATE
A
Representative
B
Officer
C
Member
D
Servant
Question 9 Explanation: 
DELEGATE means a person sent or authorized to represent others, in particular an elected representative sent to a conference.
Question 10
LETHARGY
A
Serenity
B
Laxity
C
Active
D
Bold
Question 10 Explanation: 
LETHARGY means a lack of energy and enthusiasm.
Question 11
ZEALOT
A
Fanatic
B
Apathy
C
Liberal
D
Impious
Question 11 Explanation: 
ZEALOT means a person who is fanatical and uncompromising in pursuit of their religious, political, or other ideals.
Question 12
PREVARICATE
A
Truth
B
Early
C
Lie
D
Delay
Question 12 Explanation: 
PREVARICATE means speak or act in an evasive way.
Question 13
VANITY
A
Pride
B
Modesty
C
Bashful
D
Uncertain
Question 13 Explanation: 
VANITY means excessive pride in or admiration of one’s own appearance or achievements.
Question 14
VALOUR
A
Stable
B
Coward
C
Heroism
D
Fear
Question 14 Explanation: 
VALOUR means great courage in the face of danger, especially in battle.
Question 15
VAGRANT
A
Roving
B
Stable
C
Honoured
D
Stubborn
Question 15 Explanation: 
VAGRANT means a person without a settled home or regular work who wanders from place to place and lives by begging.
Question 16
TENACIOUS
A
Calm
B
Fragile
C
Unstable
D
Dogged
Question 16 Explanation: 
TENACIOUS means tending to keep a firm hold of something; clinging or adhering closely.
Question 17
INNOCUOUS
A
not eager
B
harmless
C
not frank
D
not capable
Question 17 Explanation: 
INNOCUOUS mean not harmful or offensive.
Question 18
FOMENT
A
interrogate
B
spoil
C
spray
D
incite
Question 18 Explanation: 
FOMENT means instigate or stir up (an undesirable or violent sentiment or course of action).
Question 19
MINION
A
dependent
B
Monster
C
host
D
majori
Question 19 Explanation: 
MINION means a follower or underling of a powerful person, especially a servile or unimportant one.
Question 20
EGREGIOUS
A
belittle
B
persuade
C
friendly
D
bad
Question 20 Explanation: 
EGREGIOUS means outstandingly bad; shocking.
Question 21
REMONSTRATE
A
display
B
protest
C
resign
D
reiterate
Question 21 Explanation: 
REMONSTRATE means make a forcefully reproachful protest
Question 22
WAYLAY
A
rest
B
journey
C
song
D
ambush
Question 22 Explanation: 
WAYLAY means stop or interrupt (someone) and detain them in conversation or trouble them in some other way.
Question 23
SOLEMN
A
serious
B
amusing
C
harmful
D
speech
Question 23 Explanation: 
SOLEMN means formal and dignified.
Question 24
INSINUATE
A
Lecture
B
Suggest
C
Rectify
D
Report
Question 24 Explanation: 
INSINUATE means suggest or hint (something bad) in an indirect and unpleasant way.
Question 25
REFRACTORY
A
unmanageble
B
sinkable
C
useless
D
vanted
Question 25 Explanation: 
REFRACTORY means stubborn or unmanageable.
Question 26
TARRY
A
disturb
B
polish
C
surpass
D
linger
Question 26 Explanation: 
TARRY means like or covered with tar.
Question 27
EFFACE
A
encourage
B
rub out
C
recognise
D
countenance
Question 27 Explanation: 
EFFACE means erase (a mark) from a surface.
Question 28
APPORTION
A
divide
B
delay
C
approach
D
cut
Question 28 Explanation: 
APPORTION means divide up and share out.
Question 29
EDUCE
A
induce
B
spray
C
forget
D
elicit
Question 29 Explanation: 
EDUCE means bring out or develop (something latent or potential).
Question 30
INSCRUTABLE
A
illusion
B
shy
C
wary
D
mysterious
Question 30 Explanation: 
INSCRUTABLE means impossible to understand or interpret.
Question 31
VOCIFEROUS
A
strident
B
numerous
C
bountiful
D
garrulous
Question 31 Explanation: 
VOCIFEROUS means expressing or characterized by vehement opinions.
Question 32
REDOLENT
A
shy
B
odorous
C
bellicose
D
ubiquitous
Question 32 Explanation: 
REDOLENT means strongly reminiscent or suggestive of.
Question 33
PROTRACT
A
hire
B
corner
C
delay
D
fold
Question 33 Explanation: 
PROTRACT means prolong.
Question 34
UNPRETENTIOUS
A
humble
B
clever
C
insipid
D
aver
Question 34 Explanation: 
UNPRETENTIOUS means not attempting to impress others with an appearance of greater importance, talent, or culture than is actually possessed.
Question 35
INTERDICT
A
acclaim
B
decide
C
fret
D
prohibit
Question 35 Explanation: 
INTERDICT means an authoritative prohibition, in particular.
Question 36
VOUCH
A
Disqualify
B
Reliable
C
Roving
D
Endorse
Question 36 Explanation: 
VOUCH means assert or confirm as a result of one’s own experience the truth or accuracy of (something).
Question 37
VENOM
A
Praise
B
Love
C
Resentment
D
Remedy
Question 37 Explanation: 
VENOM means a poisonous substance secreted by animals such as snakes, spiders, and scorpions and typically injected into prey or aggressors by biting or stinging.
Question 38
ABSTAIN
A
Refrain
B
Ingest
C
Take in
D
Consume
Question 38 Explanation: 
ABSTAIN means restrain oneself from doing or enjoying something.
Question 39
CAMOUFLAGE
A
Aggressive
B
Deception
C
Vigilant
D
Honour
Question 39 Explanation: 
CAMOUFLAGE means the disguising of military personnel, equipment, and installations by painting or covering them to make them blend in with their surroundings.
Question 40
ALACRITY
A
Mollify
B
Swiftness
C
Laziness
D
Lethargy
Question 40 Explanation: 
ALACRITY means brisk and cheerful readiness.
Once you are finished, click the button below. Any items you have not completed will be marked incorrect. Get Results
There are 40 questions to complete.

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]]> Spotting Errors https://jumpwhere.com/spotting-errors/ Thu, 14 Sep 2017 23:23:18 +0000 https://jumpwhere.com/?p=2329 Explanation/ Important formulas Instruction: In order to solve questions on spotting errors, the first step you should take is to read the complete sentence carefully. In most of the cases, you will be able to detect the error in the first go itself.While reading the entire sentence, you must carefully check the subject-verb agreement. The […]

The post Spotting Errors appeared first on JumpWhere.

]]>

Instruction:

  • In order to solve questions on spotting errors, the first step you should take is to read the complete sentence carefully. In most of the cases, you will be able to detect the error in the first go itself.While reading the entire sentence, you must carefully check the subject-verb agreement.
  • The next step is to carefully check all spellings. Many a times, an error can be spotted in spellings.
  • If you can still not detect the error or you are still unsure of the correct answer, then you must read each individual part of the sentence and closely examine which part consists of an error.

Click on start to start taking the test.
Click on the option (A, B, C or D) to figure out the right answer.
You can answer multiple times till you get the right answer.
Once you get the right answer, explanations (if any) for the same will be showcased down.
On click of list, you get to see total no of questions, no of questions you answered and no of questions pending to answer.
On click of question number you will go to that particular question.
On click of END your test will end.
On click of ‘Get Results’ you will get to see correct answer for each questions.

Spotting Errors – Question and Answers

Congratulations – you have completed Spotting Errors – Question and Answers. You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%. Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1

Read the each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘E’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

(solve as per the direction given above)

A
The minister’s speech
B
has been reported
C
to the newspaper
D
No mistake
E
No error
Question 1 Explanation: 
In the newspaper
Question 2

Read the each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘E’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

(solve as per the direction given above)

A
Yesterday, a visitor to
B
the park was attacked
C
by a tiger and
D
had to hospitalise.
E
No error
Question 2 Explanation: 
had to be hospitalised
Question 3

Read the each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘E’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

(solve as per the direction given above)

A
All of you will agree with me
B
that no problem faced by our society
C
is as grave and intractable
D
as this problem is
E
No error
Question 3 Explanation: 
That no other problem faced by our country
Question 4

Read the each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘E’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

(solve as per the direction given above)

A
The basket of apples
B
sent by the gardener
C
contained a number of
D
green mangoes also
E
No error
Question 4 Explanation: 
No error found
Question 5

Read the each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘E’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

(solve as per the direction given above)

A
In order to save petrol,
B
motorists must have to
C
be very cautious
D
while driving along the highways
E
No error.
Question 5 Explanation: 
Motorists have to
Question 6

Read the each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘E’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

(solve as per the direction given above)

A
Even after requesting
B
him, he did not
C
tell us that how
D
he wolved the problem
E
No error
Question 6 Explanation: 
tell us how
Question 7

Read the each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘E’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

(solve as per the direction given above)
A
Every animal in the zoo
B
is fed regularly
C
and attended to
D
very promptly.
E
No error
Question 7 Explanation: 
and is attended to
Question 8

Read the each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘E’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

(solve as per the direction given above)

A
Since it was a memory test
B
the students were instructed
C
to learn the
D
passage with heart
E
No error.
Question 8 Explanation: 
passage by heart
Question 9

Read the each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘E’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

(solve as per the direction given above)

A
This is one of
B
the most interesting book
C
I have
D
ever read.
E
No error
Question 9 Explanation: 
the most interesting books
Question 10

Read the each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘E’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

(solve as per the direction given above)

A
Neither the earthquake
B
nor the subsequent fire
C
was able to dampen
D
the spirit of the residents.
E
No error.
Question 10 Explanation: 
could dampen
Question 11

Read the each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘E’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

(solve as per the direction given above)
A
Generally, people have not receptive
B
and fail to notice the
C
irrelevant answers they
D
get for straight questions.
E
No error.
Question 11 Explanation: 
Generally people are not receptive
Question 12

Read the each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘E’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

(solve as per the direction given above)
A
Pramod said that
B
he prefers a white shirt
C
to coloured one
D
on any festival occasion.
E
No error.
Question 12 Explanation: 
he preferred a white shirt
Question 13

Read the each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘E’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

(solve as per the direction given above)
A
A high level meeting
B
of officials is reporting
C
to have discussed
D
the issue in great detail.
E
No error
Question 13 Explanation: 
of officials is reported
Question 14

Read the each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘E’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

(solve as per the direction given above)
A
Whatever work
B
that which you undertake
C
put your best
D
efforts in it.
Question 14 Explanation: 
you undertake
Question 15

Read the each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘E’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

(solve as per the direction given above)
A
I personally feel that
B
cleanliness in the city
C
is one proof of the
D
efficiently civic administration.
E
No error.
Question 15 Explanation: 
efficiency of the civic administration
Question 16

Read the each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘E’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

(solve as per the direction given above)
A
If you cannot
B
sympathy with the poor,
C
how will you be
D
able todo social work?
E
No error.
Question 16 Explanation: 
Sympathise with the poor
Question 17

Read the each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘E’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

(solve as per the direction given above)
A
While going
B
through the report
C
yesterday I find
D
several factual mistakes.
E
No error.
Question 17 Explanation: 
yesterday I found
Question 18

Read the each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘E’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

(solve as per the direction given above)
A
The majority of the
B
computer professionals recommends
C
that effective measures
D
should be taken against software piracy.
E
No error
Question 18 Explanation: 
A majority of the
Question 19

Read the each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘E’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

(solve as per the direction given above)
A
The photograph will give
B
the reader a far better
C
notion of the structure
D
than any verbal description.
E
No error.
Question 19 Explanation: 
impression of the structure
Question 20

Read the each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘E’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

(solve as per the direction given above)
A
On resuming his duty,
B
he asked his Superiors
C
that whether he would be
D
permitted to leave early.
E
No error.
Question 20 Explanation: 
whether he would be
Question 21

Read the each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘E’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

(solve as per the direction given above)
A
The foremost criterion of selection we adopted
B
were the number of years of training
C
a dancer had received
D
under a particular guru.
E
No error.
Question 21 Explanation: 
was the number of years of training
Question 22

Read the each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘E’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

(solve as per the direction given above)
A
If you would have
B
gone to his house
C
before 10 a.m., you would have
D
got his autograph.
E
No error.
Question 22 Explanation: 
If you had
Question 23

Read the each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘E’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

(solve as per the direction given above)
A
If the by-stander had not been
B
familiar with first-aid techniques
C
the driver which had met
D
with the accident would have died.
E
No error.
Question 23 Explanation: 
the driver who had met
Question 24

Read the each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘E’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

(solve as per the direction given above)
A
the five-member committee were
B
of the view that the present service conditions
C
of the employees of this company
D
are quite good.
E
No error.
Question 24 Explanation: 
The five-member committee was
Question 25

Read the each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘E’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

(solve as per the direction given above)
A
The man
B
is
C
a
D
social animal.
E
No error
Question 25 Explanation: 
Man
Question 26

Read the each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘E’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

(solve as per the direction given above)
A
Jayesh loved his Guru immensely
B
and gave him fullest loyalty,
C
yet he had his own
D
independent way of thinking.
E
No error.
Question 26 Explanation: 
way of thinking
Question 27

Read the each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘E’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

(solve as per the direction given above)
A
We fail to understand
B
why do most educated people
C
lose their temper even
D
without any apparent reason.
E
No error.
Question 27 Explanation: 
why most educated people
Question 28

Read the each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘E’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

(solve as per the direction given above)
A
Day in and day out
B
he keep telling
C
his friends that
D
he wants to go abroad.
E
No error.
Question 28 Explanation: 
he keeps telling
Question 29

Read the each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘E’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

(solve as per the direction given above)
A
I was standing
B
at the bus stop
C
waiting for him
D
since eight o’clock.
E
No error.
Question 29 Explanation: 
I had been standing
Question 30

Read the each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘E’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

(solve as per the direction given above)
A
The chairman welcomed
B
all the guests and
C
gave an outline of the
D
activities performing by the Company.
E
No error.
Question 30 Explanation: 
activities performed by the company
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There are 30 questions to complete.

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]]> Sentence Formation https://jumpwhere.com/sentence-formation/ Wed, 13 Sep 2017 23:30:28 +0000 https://jumpwhere.com/?p=2335 Explanation/ Important formulas – Sentence Formation Instruction: A sentence is a collection of words that convey sense or meaning and is formed according to the logic of grammar. Clear, short sentences are preferable, and more effective, than long, complex ones. The simplest sentence consists only of a noun, a naming word, and a verb or action word. To make a meaningful […]

The post Sentence Formation appeared first on JumpWhere.

]]>

Instruction:

  • A sentence is a collection of words that convey sense or meaning and is formed according to the logic of grammar. Clear, short sentences are preferable, and more effective, than long, complex ones. The simplest sentence consists only of a noun, a naming word, and a verb or action word.
  • To make a meaningful sentence join the broken part, that will convey sense or meaning resulting in formation of proper valid sentence.
  • Click on start to start taking the Sentence Formation test.
  • Click on the option (A, B, C or D) to figure out the right answer.
  • You can answer multiple times till you get the right answer.
  • Once you get the right answer, explanations (if any) for the same will be showcased down.
  • On click of the list, you get to see total no of questions, no of questions you answered and no of questions pending to answer.
  • Click on question number, you will go to that particular question.
  • On click of END, your test will end.
  • Click on ‘Get Results’, you will get to see correct answer for each questions.
  • On click of ‘Get Results’ you will get to see correct answer for each questions.

Sentence Formation – Question & Answers

Congratulations – you have completed Sentence Formation – Question & Answers. You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%. Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
  1. was 2. and 3. Suresh 4. kind 5. loving
A
31425
B
54213
C
34251
D
15243
E
12345
Question 1 Explanation: 
Explanation : ” Suresh was kind and loving “
Question 2
  1. tea 2. have 3. that 4. some 5. before
A
43251
B
24315
C
24153
D
52431
E
41325
Question 2 Explanation: 
Explanation : ” Have some tea before that “
Question 3
  1. not 2. hotel 3. comfortable 4. was 5. the
A
34521
B
53412
C
34152
D
41352
E
52413
Question 3 Explanation: 
Explanation : ” The hotel was not comfortable “
Question 4
  1. I 2. help 3. not 4. you 5. did
A
24351
B
15324
C
45231
D
43152
E
52431
Question 4 Explanation: 
Explanation : ” I did not help you “
Question 5
  1. not 2. Harry 3. away 4. run 5. did
A
13542
B
35412
C
52431
D
25143
E
21345
Question 5 Explanation: 
Explanation : ” Harry did not run away “
Question 6
  1. at 2. it 3. take 4. once 5. away
A
23514
B
14352
C
32514
D
53214
E
42315
Question 6 Explanation: 
Explanation : ” Take it away at once “
Question 7
  1. him 2. the 3. to 4. charge 5. handover
A
42531
B
51342
C
41352
D
45231
E
52431
Question 7 Explanation: 
Explanation : ” Handover the charge to him “
Question 8
  1. seen 2. going 3. you 4. him 5. have
A
35214
B
35142
C
32514
D
35124
E
53124
Question 8 Explanation: 
Explanation : ” You have seen him going “
Question 9
  1. bag 2. you 3. seen 4. have 5. my
A
51432
B
43512
C
42351
D
42153
E
21435
Question 9 Explanation: 
Explanation : ” Have you seen my bag “
Question 10
  1. killed 2. a 3. Stuart 4. bear 5. wild
A
31254
B
53124
C
23145
D
43125
E
15234
Question 10 Explanation: 
Explanation : ” Stuart killed a wild bear ”
Question 11

1. I 2. immediately 3. salary 4. my 5. want

A
43152
B
15432
C
25143
D
42351
E
45132
Question 11 Explanation: 
Explanation : ” I want my salary immediately “
Question 12

1. do 2. today 3. you 4. must 5. it

A
34152
B
25413
C
12543
D
51324
E
45213
Question 12 Explanation: 
Explanation : ” You must do it today “
Question 13

1. left 2. the 3. house 4. he 5. suddenly

A
12435
B
21354
C
45123
D
52341
E
24135
Question 13 Explanation: 
Explanation : ” He suddenly left the house “
Question 14

1. medicine 2. a 3. Neeta 4. given 5. was

A
51423
B
25431
C
15423
D
42531
E
35421
Question 14 Explanation: 
Explanation : ” Neeta was given a medicine “
Question 15

1. of 2. we 3. heard 4. him 5. had

A
42351
B
52341
C
25341
D
25431
E
25314
Question 15 Explanation: 
Explanation : ” We had heard of him “
Question 16
  1. India 2. in 3. Lives 4. He 5. Country
   
A
43251
B
53421
C
23451
D
42315
E
15432
Question 16 Explanation: 
Explanation : ” He lives in country India “
Question 17
  1. the 2. lion 3. sprang 4. buffaloes 5. upon 6. the
 
A
453216
B
123564
C
124536
D
615423
E
123654
Question 17 Explanation: 
Explanation : ” The lion sprang upon the buffaloes “
Question 18
  1. religion 2. my 3. devoted 4. brother 5. is
 
A
12345
B
12354
C
13425
D
24531
E
54312
Question 18 Explanation: 
Explanation : ” My brother is devoted toreligion “
Question 19
  1. failure 2. my 3. was 4. father 5. at 6. angry 7. my

A
7654231
B
7651234
C
7436521
D
7653421
E
5674321
Question 19 Explanation: 
Explanation : ” My father was angry at my failure “
Question 20
  1. Sunday? 2. Could 3. on a 4. you 5. early 6. wake me up 7. so
 
A
2467531
B
2567431
C
2154367
D
2176543
E
7612345
Question 20 Explanation: 
Explanation : ” Could you wake me up so early on a Sunday?
Question 21
  1. evidence 2. there 3. is 4. tenuous 5. quite 6. it 7. for
 
A
2134567
B
2654317
C
2354176
D
2765431
E
7651234
Question 21 Explanation: 
Explanation : ” There is quite tenuous evidence for it “
Question 22
  1. seen 2. that 3. I have 4. was the 5. movie 6. worse 7. ever

A
2134567
B
2465371
C
2134576
D
245317
E
2456713
Question 22 Explanation: 
Explanation : ” That was the worse movie I have ever seen “
Question 23
  1. good ones 2. he has 3. many friends, 4. few are 5. but

A
24513
B
25431
C
24531
D
23541
E
23145
Question 23 Explanation: 
Explanation : ” He has many friends, but few are good ones “
Question 24
  1. meet you 2. I am 3. very much 4. delighted to

A
2431
B
2314
C
1342
D
2341
E
1321
Question 24 Explanation: 
Explanation : ” I am very much delighted to meet you “
Question 25
  1. at home 2. John 3. said 4. would 5. he 6. prefer 7. to play
 
A
2456713
B
2134675
C
2345671
D
2134567
E
2354671
Question 25 Explanation: 
Explanation : ” John said he would prefer to play at home “
Question 26
  1. brother 2. the man 3. hurrying 4. down the 5. is my 6. road
 
A
234561
B
234651
C
214536
D
256321
E
263145
Question 26 Explanation: 
Explanation : ” The man hurrying down the road is my brother “
Question 27
  1. thought 2. calls 3. for a 4. lot of 5. the problem
 
A
53214
B
54123
C
54321
D
52341
E
52431
Question 27 Explanation: 
Explanation : ” The problem calls for a lot of thought “
Question 28
  1. examine 2. I have 3. brought 4. over you to 5. some books
 
A
25431
B
23154
C
23514
D
23541
E
54123
Question 28 Explanation: 
Explanation : ” I have brought some books over you to examine “
Question 29
  1. hand 2. he wore 3. bracelets 4. on each 5. multiple
 
A
25431
B
25341
C
25413
D
23145
E
24135
Question 29 Explanation: 
Explanation : ” He wore multiple bracelets on each hand “
Question 30
  1. up the 2. the 3. smoke 4. went 5. chimney
 
A
23541
B
32514
C
24315
D
23415
E
23514
Question 30 Explanation: 
Explanation : ” The smoke went up the chimney “
Once you are finished, click the button below. Any items you have not completed will be marked incorrect. Get Results
There are 30 questions to complete.

The post Sentence Formation appeared first on JumpWhere.

]]> Sentence Correction https://jumpwhere.com/sentence-correction/ Tue, 12 Sep 2017 23:23:03 +0000 https://jumpwhere.com/?p=2325 Explanation / Important formulas – Sentence Correction Instruction: The phrases which are  given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold type to make the grammatically correct. Instructions to take Aptitude Test Click on start to start taking the Sentence Correction test. Click on the option (A, B, C or D) to figure out the […]

The post Sentence Correction appeared first on JumpWhere.

]]>

Instruction:

The phrases which are  given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold type to make the grammatically correct.

  • Click on start to start taking the Sentence Correction test.
  • Click on the option (A, B, C or D) to figure out the right answer.
  • You can answer multiple times till you get the right answer.
  • Once you get the right answer, explanations (if any) for the same will be showcased down.
  • On click of the list, you get to see total no of questions, no of questions you answered and no of questions pending to answer.
  • Click on question number, you will go to that particular question.
  • On click of END, your test will end.
  • Click on ‘Get Results’, you will get to see correct answer for each questions.
  • On click of ‘Get Results’ you will get to see correct answer for each questions.

Sentence Correction – Question and Answers

Congratulations – you have completed Sentence Correction – Question and Answers. You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%. Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
By next month, Ms. Jones will be Mayor of Tallahassee for two years.
A
will be Mayor of Tallahassee
B
will have been Mayor of Tallahassee
C
will be mayor of Tallahassee
D
will have been mayor of Tallahassee
E
could have been mayor of Tallahassee
Question 1 Explanation: 
“By next month” used together with “for two years” indicates something that will be completed in the future, so future perfect “will have been” is the correct tense.
“Will be” [(A), (C)] means she will be mayor for two years beginning in the future.
Moreover, “Mayor” [(A), (B)] is incorrectly capitalized: it is not used as a title/name here (like “Mayor Jones”). “Could have been” (E) changes the meaning.
Question 2
Valarie claims that cats made the best pets.
A
made the best pets.
B
could be the best pets.
C
are the best pets
D
make of the best pets.
E
make the best pets.
Question 2 Explanation: 
To agree with the present-tense predicate “claims,” the dependent clause must also be present-tense “make,” not “made” (A).
“Could be” (B) and “are” (C) alter the sentence meaning. “Make of” (D) is not a valid construction in this sentence structure, makes no sense, and means nothing.
Question 3
If he would have revised his first draft, he would have received a better grade.
A
would have revised
B
had revised
C
could of revised
D
had of revised
E
would revise
Question 3 Explanation: 
With conditional-subjunctive constructions, never add the subjunctive auxiliary verb (would/could/would have/could have) to the conditional (If) half [(A), (C), (E)]; it is only used in the subjunctive half.
It is never correct to substitute the preposition “of” for the auxiliary verb “have” [(C), (D)].
Question 4
If I would have known about the team tryouts, I would have signed up for them.
A
had known
B
would have known
C
could of known
D
had been told
E
could have been told
Question 4 Explanation: 
Conditional-subjunctive (“If…then”) constructions set in the past use past perfect (“If I had known”) for the conditional, and present perfect (“I would have signed up”) for the subjunctive, because “If” comes earlier and “then” later.
Adding the subjunctive “would”/”could” to the conditional as well (B) is incorrect.
Substituting the preposition “of” for the auxiliary verb “have” (C) is always incorrect. “Had been/could have been told” [(C), (D)] differs in meaning from “had known.”
Question 5
Do you know that these gloves have lay on the bureau all week?
A
have lay on
B
have laid on
C
would lie on
D
had laid on
E
have lain on
Question 5 Explanation: 
The present perfect intransitive “to lie” is “have lain,” not “have lay” (A), “have laid” (B), or “had laid” (D), which latter two are only transitive, e.g. “She has laid the gloves on the bureau every day” or “I saw a pair of gloves she had laid on the bureau.”
The conditional “would lie” (C) is only grammatical with a conditional, e.g. “…would lie on the bureau all week unless you moved them,” also conveying a different meaning.
Question 6
If I had the address, I would have delivered the package myself.
A
had the address,
B
had the address;
C
had the address-
D
had had the address;
E
had had the address,
Question 6 Explanation: 
Since this entire conditional-subjunctive sentence construction is in the past, the correct conditional form is past perfect “If I had had” rather than present perfect “if I had” [(A), (B), (C)] with the present perfect subjunctive “I would have.”
The correct punctuation between conditional “if” and subjunctive “would” parts is always a comma, never a semicolon [(B), (D)] or a dash (C).
Question 7
The helium-filled balloon rose in the air.
A
rose in the air.
B
was rising in the air.
C
was in the air.
D
rose into the air.
E
would rise in the air.
Question 7 Explanation: 
The correct preposition with verbs expressing movement or placement is “into,” not “in” [(A), (B), (C), (E)], a common error.
We place something into a container, not in it; things move into the air, not in it.
“In” denotes something is already there rather than moving/being moved there.
Question 8
During colonial days, a school room looked rather empty.
A
colonial days, a school room looked
B
colonial days, a schoolroom looked
C
colonial days; a schoolroom looked
D
colonial days; a school room looked
E
colonial days-a schoolroom looked
Question 8 Explanation: 
“Schoolroom” is one word, not two [(A), (D)]. A semicolon separates independent clauses or phrases containing internal commas, but is incorrect between a phrase and a clause [(C), (D)].
A comma, not a dash (E), is used between the introductory prepositional phrase and the independent clause it modifies.
Question 9
Someone gives the school gerbils every year.
A
Someone gives the school gerbils
B
Some one gives the school gerbils
C
Some one gives the School gerbils
D
There is a person that gives the school gerbils
E
An individual gave gerbils
Question 9 Explanation: 
“Someone” is one word, not two [(B), (C)]. “There is a person that” (D) differs semantically and grammatically, meaning someone exists who gives the school gerbils rather than someone gives the school gerbils; also, “who” is preferable over “that” when referring to people.
The meaning is changed by past tense “gave” (E); i.e. an individual/someone gave the school gerbils every year but no longer does, vs. someone still gives the school gerbils every year.
Question 10
Quebec rises in a magnificent way above the St. Lawrence River.
A
rises in a magnificent way above
B
rises in a magnificent way, way above
C
rises magnificently above
D
rises magnificently way above
E
is raised in a magnificent way above
Question 10 Explanation: 
The adverb “magnificently” modifies the verb “rises” and reads more appropriately and concisely than the phrase “in a magnificent way.”
“Way above” [(B), (C)] is slangy and does not express the intended meaning. If it did, “far above” would be more correct.
Passive-voice “is raised” (E) connotes a different meaning (i.e. is set higher) than active-voice “rises” (i.e. appears) in this sentence.
Question 11
Arctic trees are scrubbiest than trees in milder climates.
A
scrubbiest than trees
B
scrubbier then trees
C
scrubbiest than are trees
D
scrubbier than are trees
E
scrubbier than trees
Question 11 Explanation: 
When comparing two things, the comparative “-er” is used rather than the superlative “-est,” which is only used when comparing more than two things.
The adverb “than” is used with the comparative, not the conjunction “then” (B), which indicates time sequence (e.g. “and then…”), cause and effect (e.g. “If…,then…”). Adding “are” (D) is unnecessary.
Question 12
The setting of a story effects the story’s plot.
A
effects the story’s plot.
B
effects the stories plot.
C
affect the story’s plot.
D
affects the story’s plot.
E
affects the story’s plots.
Question 12 Explanation: 
To affect means to influence. This meaning, and hence this spelling, apply here. To effect [(A), (B)] means to cause, initiate, create, implement, or accomplish.
“Stories” (B) is plural, not possessive. “Affect” (C) goes with a plural, not singular, subject. “Plots” (E) is plural, not singular.
Question 13
Once upon a point a time, a small person named Little Red Riding Hood initiated plans for the preparation, delivery and transportation of foodstuffs to her Grandmother.
A
and transportation of foodstuffs to her Grandmother.
B
and transportation of food stuffs to her Grandmother.
C
and transportation of food supplies to her Grandmother
D
and transportation of foodstuffs to her grandmother.
E
and, transportation of food supplies to her grand mother.
Question 13 Explanation: 
When used as a noun rather than a name (proper noun), “grandmother” is not capitalized.
Used either way, it is still one word, not two (E); the same is true of “foodstuffs” (B).
Question 14
I really dug the character of Brutus.
A
dug
B
thought about
C
thought of
D
admired
E
gazed at
Question 14 Explanation: 
“Admired” is an acceptable word in writing for the desired meaning, whereas “dug” (A) is slang.
“Thought about (B), “thought of” (C), and “gazed at” (E) do not convey the same meaning at all.
Question 15
Linda decides they had better scram before the killers find them.
A
had better scram
B
had better leave
C
should hurry and scram
D
could hurry and leave
E
had better get out
Question 15 Explanation: 
“Scram” is a slang word meaning “leave,” a more acceptable choice when writing (excepting intentional slang like Mark Twain used in dialogue, narrative, etc.).
“Could” (D) means they can leave, whereas “had better” and “should” means they ought to leave. “Get out” (E), similarly to “scram,” is less acceptable than “leave.”
Question 16
To judge the Tidy City contest, we picked an uninterested party.
A
picked an uninterested party.
B
picked an interested party!
C
picked a disinterested party.
D
are in the process of picking an uninterested party.
E
picked an disinterested party.
Question 16 Explanation: 
The correct word choice for this sentence is “disinterested,” meaning not personally involved or invested and (presumably) impartial.
“Uninterested” means literally not interested, i.e. oblivious or not caring. In this context, they would not pick an “interested” party to judge a contest, and the exclamation mark (B) is inappropriate punctuation. “An” (E) is incorrect preceding a consonant.
Question 17
When studying an assignment, it is wise to read it over quickly at first, than see the major points, and finally outline the material.
A
first, than
B
first: then
C
first-then
D
first, then
E
first-than
Question 17 Explanation: 
“Then” is an adverb indicating time or sequence here. “Than” [(A), (E)] is a conjunction indicating comparison, e.g. “He is taller than I am” or “We would rather go now than later.” When listing three sequential steps as in this sentence, the comma after the first and second steps is correct punctuation; a colon (B) or hyphen [(C), (E)] is incorrect.
Question 18
Sabotage came from the French saboter, which means “to clatter with wooden shoes (sabots).”
A
which means “to
B
which means, “to
C
that means “to
D
that means-“to
E
that means, “to
Question 18 Explanation: 
No punctuation should be placed between “means” and “to” here.
Hence a comma [(B), (E)] or dash (D) is incorrect. A nonrestrictive relative clause introduces additional information, requiring a comma and “which”-not “that” [(C), (D), and (E)]. “That” is used without a comma and only with a restrictive relative clause, i.e. one that is necessary to understand the meaning of the noun it modifies.
Question 19
Jessica Mitford wrote The American Way of Death, a best-selling book that led eventually to an official investigation of the funeral industry.
A
that led eventually
B
that had led eventually
C
that eventually led
D
which eventually led
E
who eventually led
Question 19 Explanation: 
With an indirect object, the transitive verb and preposition should be a unit, i.e. “led to” here, like “take from,” “give to,” etc., uninterrupted by the modifying adverb “eventually.” “Who” (E) only applies to people, not inanimate objects like books.
Question 20
If the books have been cataloged last week, why haven’t they been placed on the shelf?
A
have been cataloged
B
would have been cataloged
C
was cataloged
D
were cataloged
E
had been cataloged
Question 20 Explanation: 
“Last week” dictates simple past tense “were.” Present perfect “have been” (A) refers to the status now of something already accomplished in the past-e.g. “have been cataloged since last week.” Subjunctive present perfect “would have been” (B) is never used in a conditional “If” clause/phrase, only as its complement (“If…, then they would…”).
Singular “was” (C) disagrees with plural “books.” Past perfect “had been” (E) would require “why hadn’t they been…/weren’t they…?” to agree.
Question 21
In the U.S., German luxury brands have succeeded in getting people who might have once thought the cars were out of their league in buying and leasing some snazzy rides.
A
have succeeded in getting people who might have once thought the cars were out of their league in buying and leasing some snazzy rides
B
have succeeded in getting people who might have once thought the cars were out of their league to buy and lease some snazzy rides
C
have succeeded in getting people who once might have thought the cars were out of their league to buy and lease some snazzy rides
D
has succeeded in getting people who might have once thought the cars were out of their league to buy and lease some snazzy rides
E
has succeeded in getting people who might have once thought the cars were out of their league in buying and leasing some snazzy rides
Question 21 Explanation: 
A. It is idiomatic to say in getting x… to do y. in getting people… in buying is not idiomatic. Choice (A) is therefore, incorrect.
B. CORRECT. The correct idiom is used.
C. Once is misplaced: it is not placed before the verb it is modifying. Once thought is the correct construction.
D. German luxury brands is plural. Therefore, the use of has creates a Noun-Verb disagreement and is incorrect.
E. has creates a noun-verb disagreement. Moreover, in getting x… to do y is idiomatic.
Question 22

Thieves steal Hondas and Toyotas from the 1990s more than other models because they can chop them up and sell them for parts that are worth more than the car.

A
more than other models because they can chop them up and sell them for parts that are worth more than the car
B
more than they steal other models because they can chop them up and sell them for parts that are worth more than the car
C
more than they do other models because they can dismantle the cars and sell the parts that are worth more than the car
D
more than other models because they can chop the cars up and sell them for parts that are worth more than the car
E
more than other models because they can dismantle them up and sell them for parts that are worth more than the car
Question 22 Explanation: 
A. Comparison error. Requires more than they steal…. to complete the comparison. Also the pronoun them is ambiguous. It can refer to Hondas, Toyotas, or other models.
B. Takes care of comparison error, but the pronoun error still stands.
C. CORRECT. Dummy verb do takes care of comparison error. Pronoun error stands corrected. Also, the phrase dismantle the cars is better than chop the cars.
D. While pronoun ambiguity is corrected, comparison is incomplete. E. Comparison is incomplete. Pronoun them is ambiguous. Dismantle up is incorrect.
Question 23

Hopes that the European Central Bank will reach a deal to help Spain and Italy borrow at cheaper rates has nudged financial markets higher.

A
Spain and Italy borrow at cheaper rates has nudged financial markets higher
B
Spain and Italy borrow at cheaper rates have nudged financial markets to higher levels
C
Spain and Italy borrow at cheaper rates has nudged financial markets to higher levels
D
Spain and Italy borrow at cheaper rates nudged financial markets to higher levels
E
Spain and Italy borrow at cheaper rates nudged financial markets higher
Question 23 Explanation: 
A. The subject for the verb nudged is Hopes. The correct verb is have nudged….. to higher X is required because financial markets are measured in index levels.
B. CORRECT. have nudged….. is the correct verb for Hopes. to higher levels is required.
C. has nudged is incorrect.
D. Original sentence has the present perfect auxilliary has…… It is required in the sentence.
E. Original sentence has the present perfect auxilliary has…… It is required in the sentence. to higher X is required because financial markets are measured in index levels.
Question 24

Unlike Ancient Greek art which saw the veneration of the animal form and the development of equivalent skills to show musculature, poise, beauty and anatomically correct proportions, Ancient Roman art depicted gods as idealized humans, shown with characteristic distinguishing features.

A
Unlike Ancient Greek art which saw the veneration of the animal form and the development of equivalent skills to show musculature
B
Ancient Greek art saw the veneration of the animal form and the development of equivalent skills to show musculature
C
While Ancient Greek art saw the veneration of the animal form and developed equivalent skills to show musculature
D
While Ancient Greek art venerated the animal form and developed equivalent skills to show musculature
E
Unlike Ancient Greek art which venerated the animal form and the development of equivalent skills to show musculature
Question 24 Explanation: 
A. The two art forms are not complete contrasts. Hence use of unlike is incorrect. This is a mere difference, hence while should be used. Also the correct part of the sentence uses Ancient Roman art depicted…so the first part should also be parallely constructed.
B. The sentence is cumbersome because of the repetitive use of the comma. Also lacks parallel construction.
C. While…. takes care of the difference highlighted in the sentence. The original sentence talks of both veneration…and development…as predicates of the verb saw; here developed is constructed in parallel with saw – thus changing the intent of the sentence.
D. Correct. Use of while is required. Venerated….. and developed…. are parallely constructed and conform to depicted…
E. Use of unlike….. is incorrect. Greek Art did not venerate the development of…..
Question 25
My hair stood off ends when I saw the horrible sight.
A
stood at ends
B
stood on ends
C
stood to ends
D
No correction required
E
stands on ends
Question 25 Explanation: 
B is the right answer…OFF – is used in case of separation. ON – is used in case of not separation the things must be in a contact. So above option ‘B’is correct answer due to hair contact.
Question 26
No sooner do the bells ring than the curtain rose.
A
did the bell ring
B
did the bells ring
C
had the bell rang
D
had the bell rung
E
No correction required
Question 26 Explanation: 
After no sooner we use either.
Did + Present Tense (V1) or Had + Vs
Question 27
The police has so far succeed in recovering only a part of the stolen property.
A
thus far succeeded for recovery
B
so far succeed in the recovery of
C
as far as succeeded in recovery of
D
so far succeed to recover
E
No correction required
Question 27 Explanation: 
The sentence is correct
Question 28
Meditation has used in every part of the world.
A
has useful
B
has been used
C
has had used
D
may have used
E
No correction required
Question 28 Explanation: 
In the place of has used, use has been used.
Question 29
We advised them to go to a hill station during the summer vacation.
A
for going to
B
that they go to
C
to going to
D
that they should have to go to
E
No correction required
Question 29 Explanation: 
The sentence is correct.
Question 30
They failed in their attempt to repair the demolished portion of the building.
A
for their attempt
B
in their attempting to repair
C
with their attempt
D
in their attempt for repairs
E
No correction required
Question 30 Explanation: 
The sentence is correct.
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]]> Ordering of Sentences https://jumpwhere.com/ordering-of-sentences/ Mon, 11 Sep 2017 22:48:57 +0000 https://jumpwhere.com/?p=1794 Explanation/ Important formulas for the topic Ordering of Sentences Instruction: Parajumbles are jumbled sentences of some paragraph. Basically, for a given paragraph, the sentences are not in the right order. It’s up to you to understand the crux and rearrange the sentences so that they logically make sense. Usually, instructions for this type of questions […]

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Instruction:

  • Parajumbles are jumbled sentences of some paragraph. Basically, for a given paragraph, the sentences are not in the right order.
  • It’s up to you to understand the crux and rearrange the sentences so that they logically make sense.
  • Usually, instructions for this type of questions will read “Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph”.

Click on start to start taking the test for Ordering of Sentences.
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Ordering of Sentences – Question and Answers

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Question 1

S1. You can make a will as simple as you want.

A. This is because your witness will be called upon to testify in court if the will is ever challenged. B. Lawyers advise people to use witnesses who are younger than they and are likely to outlive them. C. You will need to sign the document in the presence of two witnesses, who will then have to put the signature on it. D. It helps if a doctor is a witness or the document is signed in his presence.

S6. This is because he could be called upon to testify to the stability of your mental condition when you drew up the will.

A
ABCD
B
CBAD
C
DCBA
D
CDBA
Question 1 Explanation: 
The proper order for the four sentences is CBAD
Question 2

S1. Getting to Spain is not much of a problem since it is well connected with all major European cities by air.

A. Travelling within the country does not pose much of a problem. B. One can get to Madrid and Barcelona by train, as there are rail services from Milan, Zurich, Geneva, Paris and Lisbon. C. One can also go by car from neighbouring countries, since no visa is required for people coming from the Schengen – area countries. D. From the UK, the best way is to take the Euro Star to Paris and then a train.

S6. There are air taxis, cars and bikes available on rent, buses, special tourist trains and passenger ferries.

A
BDCA
B
DBCA
C
ABCD
D
DCAB
Question 2 Explanation: 
The proper order for the four sentences is BDCA
Question 3

S1. The effect of exercise on the immune system is a field of intense research.

A. For example, if patients suffering from recurrent sore throats, the practice of sarvangasana greatly reduces the frequency of infections. B. There is definite evidence that exercise helps better functioning of the immune cells. C. In yoga, regional immunity can be improved because the blood can be flushed into any area. D. This increases the concentration of immunity cells in those areas.

S6. Immunity is also improved by de-stressing of the body and the mind.

A
BDAC
B
CDAB
C
BCDA
D
DBAC
Question 3 Explanation: 
The proper order for the four sentences is BCDA
Question 4

S1. The fragile Yugoslav state has an uncertain future.

A. Thus, there will surely be chaos and uncertainty if the people fail to settle their differences. B. Sharp ideological differences already exist in the country. C. Ethnic, regional, linguistic and material disparities are profound. D. The country will also lose the excellent reputation it enjoyed in the international area.

S6. At worst, it will once more become vulnerable to international conspiracy and intrigue.

A
BCAD
B
ADCB
C
ACBD
D
BACD
Question 4 Explanation: 
The proper order for the four sentences is BCAD
Question 5

S1. The new economic policy comprises the various measures and changes introduced since July 1991.

A. There is a common thread running through all these measures. B. The objective is simple – to improve the efficiency of the system. C. The regulatory mechanism involving multitude of controls has fragmented the capacity and reduced competition even in the private sector. D. The thrust of the new policy is towards creating a more competitive environment as a means to improving the productivity and efficiency of the economy.

S6. This is to be activated by removing the barriers and restrictions on the entry and growth of firms.

A
DCAB
B
ABCD
C
BDAC
D
DCBA
Question 5 Explanation: 
The proper order for the four sentences is ABCD
Question 6

S1. Commercial energy consumption shows an increasing trend and poses the major challenge for the future.

A. The demand, for petroleum, during 1996 -97 and 2006 -07 is anticipated to be 81 million tonnes and 125 million tonnes respectively. B. According to the projections of the 14th Power Survey Committee Report, the electricity generation requirements from utilities will be about 416 billion units by 1996 – 97 and 824 billion units by 2006 – 07. C. The production of coal should reach 303 million tonnes by 1996 – 97 to achieve plan targets and 460 million tonnes by 2006 – 07. D. The demand for petroleum products has already rapidly outstripped indigenous production.

S6. Electricity is going to play a major role in the development of infrastructural facilities.

A
DACB
B
CADB
C
ADCB
D
DCAB
Question 6 Explanation: 
The proper order for the four sentences is DACB
Question 7

S1. Figure skating is primarily a sport of amateurs.

A. For years, the singles competition was judged according to two categories. B. The compulsory – figures category required each skater to perform three or six repetitions of three figures drawn from a possible 41 patterns. C. Contests are held for singles and for pairs. D. The free – skating category judged a skater’s ability to perform jumps, spins, spirals, and skating coordinated with music.

S6. All figures are based on a figure – eight pattern or variations thereof.

A
BCAD
B
CADB
C
CDBA
D
ABCD
Question 7 Explanation: 
The proper order for the four sentences is CADB
Question 8

S1. Some years ago, I had to regularly deal with an executive who was notorious for being an emotional powder keg.

A. When his spirits were high, he could carry an entire division of staff with his energy and enthusiasm. B. This rampant emotionalism often served him well. C. When things were going his way, he could be incredibly clever, dynamic and generous. D. When things turned sour, he tended to be incredibly argumentative and unyielding.

S6. Obviously, if I wanted something from him, it was important to catch him when he was on roll.

A
BCDA
B
ABCD
C
DCBA
D
BCAD
Question 8 Explanation: 
The proper order for the four sentences is BCDA
Question 9

S1. Rain flooded the streets of Cherry Hill, NJ, one day in August.

A. They were away, and he had promised to keep an eye on the place, he crossed the street to check. B. She found an extension cord plugged into a kitchen outlet and leading down the basement stairs. C. By 5 p.m., Norman E. Tooth man was worrying about his neighbours’ basement. D. An hour later, when he had failed to come home, his wife went to the neighbours’ looking for him.

S6. There, lying in an inch of water on the floor beside a sump pump was her husband, dead, electrocuted, the coroner later said, when with wet hands he plugged the cord into the pump.

A
CADB
B
DABC
C
BADC
D
ABCD
Question 9 Explanation: 
The proper order for the four sentences is CADB
Question 10

S1. The case of Susie G. is typical.

A. But when Susie was only 21 months old, her mother left her in the kitchen ‘for just a minute’ to hand up washing outdoors. B. Before she was born, her mother pored over booklets about baby care. C. Later, her mother conscientiously brought her to my office for inoculations and followed my feeding instructions regularly. D. During the ‘minute’. The little tyke climbed on a chair and started a handkerchief through the electric wringer.

S6. The result: three fingers badly crushed, one broken and a hand in splints for weeks.

A
BACD
B
ABCD
C
DABC
D
BCAD
Question 10 Explanation: 
The proper order for the four sentences is BCAD
Question 11
S1. The researchers examine a psychological advantage that pioneering companies often encounter.

A. But they caution that this advantage must be weighed against the existence of inexpensive local products, underdeveloped communication infrastructure, and cultural fragmentation. B. Customers in emerging markets tend to be strongly loyal to first – mover brands, even after viable alternatives appear. C. First – movers there have the opportunity to seize loyal consumers – if only they can reach them. D. In Myanmar, for example, there is only one television set per hundred people.

S6. The bottom line, according to the study, is that it does not always pay to move first.

 
A
ACBD
B
DABC
C
BCAD
D
BADC
Question 11 Explanation: 
The proper order for the four sentences is BADC
Question 12

S1. The effect can be rather indirect.

A. This revenge is not taken on the parents who caused the damage because they are now old or dead. B. This happens in human populations, too, that juveniles are ill – treated in a way that leads to violent revenge. C. Instead, it is taken on parent – substitutes. D. For instance, one of the results of animal overcrowding is that parental care suffers and the young do not receive the usual love and attention.

S6. Violence against these individuals appears senseless.

A
DCBA
B
CBDA
C
DBAC
D
BACD
Question 12 Explanation: 
The proper order for the four sentences is DBAC
Question 13

S1. The flaws in this view are obvious enough to anyone who has studied animal aggression and the way it is organized.

A. Animals fight, but they do not go for war. B. There is a good reason for this. C. In either case, physical combat is reduced to a minimum and disputes are nearly always settled by display, by threat and counter – threat. D. Their fighting is done on a personal basis, either to establish a dominant position in a social hierarchy, or to defend a personal territory.

S6. In the tooth and claw fury of close combat, the ultimate winner is likely to be wounded almost as badly as the loser.

A
BCDA
B
ADBC
C
ACBD
D
ADCB
Question 13 Explanation: 
The proper order for the four sentences is ADCB
Question 14

S1. Look at any industry and you will see three kinds of companies.

A. They are the oligarchy B. Next are the rule takers, the companies that pay homage to the industrial “lords.” C. IBM, CBS, United Airlines, Merill Lynch, Sears, Coca – Cola, and the like are the creators and procreators of industrial orthodoxy. D. First are the rule makers, the incumbents that built the industry.

S6. Fujitsu, ABC, US Air, Smith Barney, J.C. Penny and numerous others are peasants.

A
DCAB
B
DCBA
C
CBDA
D
BCAD
Question 14 Explanation: 
The proper order for the four sentences is DCAB
Question 15

S1. Rebelling against conventional practice, pop icon Madonna and Hollywood actress Jodie Foster have decided to have children out of wedlock.

A. Their decision – to be single mothers by choice – can, however no longer be viewed as an individual and impulsive act of non – conformism. B. The trend originates from the female sexual revolution that led women to believe that their identity could exist independently of men. C. It points to a social trend, where a growing number of women are choosing to become single mothers. D. After nearly half a century, the message has truly rung home.

S6. Women have begun to marginalize the role of men in their lives.

A
BCAD
B
BACD
C
ADCB
D
ACBD
Question 15 Explanation: 
The proper order for the four sentences is ACBD
Question 16
S1. The train had just left Nagpur. A. The horizon lay interspersed with silken clouds – plain white balls of unblemished cotton. B. It would be some time before it reached Hyderabad, my destination. C. It was as if I was in the midst of a celestial play. D. The deep blue sky spread over the craggy Deccan expanse. S6. The sun was at its playful best.
A
ADCB
B
BCDA
C
ACBD
D
BDAC
Question 16 Explanation: 
The proper order for the four sentences is BCDA
Question 17

S1. A few days later I was on an overnight bus to Karimnagar.

A. Birds flew out of their nests for their day’s search. B. The rays of the rising sun had given them a golden orange tone. C. Clouds had a different look. D. Dawn was breaking over the horizon.

S6. The men around me slept, ensconced in their world of dreams.

A
DBCA
B
DABC
C
DACB
D
DBAC
Question 17 Explanation: 
The proper order for the four sentences is DACB
Question 18

S1. This is a company that prides itself on its carefully nurtured extensive distribution bricks and mortar network.

A. The company also plans a foray into the service sector by setting up a chain of laundrettes across the country. B. Yet today, pre -cooked chappatis and ready – made mixes are a big market. C. And that’s not all. D. Today the idea may appear a trifle ambitious but remember that it was not so long ago that the same things were said about the market for ready to eat foods and branded cereals.

S6. Disposable incomes are rising in the metros and big cities and time is at a premium.

A
ADBC
B
CADB
C
ABDC
D
CABD
Question 18 Explanation: 
The proper order for the four sentences is CADB
Question 19

S1. Venture capital started about 15 years ago with some government backed funds.

A. In India, in the last 4 – 5 years, some US funds have entered. B. US funds like draper and Walden have played an important role in kick-starting the venture capital industry in India. C. Draper in particular played a pioneering role. D. This was the second wave of venture capital.

S6. The third wave is people coming back from the US and moving into venture capital like myself.

A
BACD
B
DABC
C
ABCD
D
CDBA
Question 19 Explanation: 
The proper order for the four sentences is ABCD
Question 20

S1. Just because the Japanese are having fewer children does not mean there are not plenty of bodies to do the work.

A. All Japan has to do is open the doors a little bit. B. Millions of Chinese would love to work in Japan. C. Another idea is to import a few million considerate males. D. It’s not that Japanese women don’t want children; they don’t want Japanese husbands and the inevitable dreaded mother – in – law that comes with most husbands, since so many young Japanese men are only sons.

S6. In the past, there were many second and third sons who did not carry the mother in law baggage because first sons inherited everything.

A
CBAD
B
DCAB
C
ABCD
D
CABD
Question 20 Explanation: 
The proper order for the four sentences is ABCD
Question 21

S1. Women’s groups in Spain sued a Muslim imam Mohammed Mustafa.

A. The imam says he was not advising men to beat their wives. B. His book ‘Women and Islam’ gives instructions to husbands. C. They accused him of inciting violence towards women. D. He advises, for example, that a beating – administered with a “fine and light” rod – on the feet is better than one around the face because bruises would be less visible.

S6. He wanted to just tell them how to do it as a last resort, and under strict guidelines.

A
ACDB
B
BACD
C
CABD
D
CBDA
Question 21 Explanation: 
The proper order for the four sentences is CBDA
Question 22

S1. Fire ripped through another oil pipeline in southern Nigeria, killing at least 40 people.

A. The explosion was the third in two weeks. B. Police were deployed to stop villagers from stealing fuel from other pipelines. C. Local politicians have blamed this vandalism on cartels. D. Once the cartels have siphoned off fuel, impoverished locals move in to collect what they can for sale to passing motorists.

S6. But pipelines often explode, and the practice has left about 2,000 people dead in the past 2 years.

A
ACBD
B
ABCD
C
CABD
D
CBDA
Question 22 Explanation: 
The proper order for the four sentences is ABCD
Question 23

S1. Witness the marked contrast between the stability of governments in states ruled by regional parties and those by the national parties.

A. There is no superior authority to whom the dissident MLA can go to with his complaints. B. Invariably, they enforce party discipline with a firm hand. C. It is not that the former leaders are paragons of democratic virtues. D. Yet, they are directly responsible and accountable to the legislators.

S6. Looked at another way, the tendency to control from above is a reflection only of leadership insecurities.

A
ABCD
B
BDAC
C
CDBA
D
ABDC
Question 23 Explanation: 
The proper order for the four sentences is CDBA
Question 24

S1. More than 90% of the nation’s primary schools are run by government bodies, and most of them are non – performing institutions.

A. The non – performance of our government schools is the primary reason why the majority of their students complete four or five years of education, and still do not acquire the literacy and numeric skills expected after the first two years of schooling. B. On the literacy front, we will be adding millions of illiterates, or virtual illiterates, from these primary schools every year. C. This is one of the main reasons why 25% of children in the primary school – going age group 6 – 10 years, estimated at 20 million children, are not in school. D. What is the impact of our non – performing primary schools on our students, the educational system and the country as a whole?

S6. Since 40% of our population is illiterate, illiteracy will remain with us well into the next century.

A
CBAD
B
CADB
C
CDAB
D
CBDA
Question 24 Explanation: 
The proper order for the four sentences is CADB
Question 25

S1. The first thing that strikes you as your Airbus lands at Don Muang Airport is the heat and the humidity.

A. Japanese tour groups, complete with Nike shoes and matching bags; huge contingents from mainland China easily distinguishable with their obsession with Khaki, animated Malaysians, colourful smatterings of Indonesians and Koreans and the rest. B. In Thailand, it is hot and humid, very hot and humid or mild and humid. C. Many a thousand of tourists descending upon a kingdom which must boast the most successful tourism industry in the world. D. Almost as overwhelming is the rush of humanity as you approach the immigration clearance area.

S6. The inclement weather apart. Thailand is overstuffed with cars, choked with auto pollution, and always in a state of flux.

A
CBAD
B
CADB
C
CDAB
D
BDCA
Question 25 Explanation: 
The proper order for the four sentences is BDCA
Question 26

S1. India wants e-commerce transactions across countries to remain duty – free for at least another two three years.

A. The ITA – II aims to reduce tariffs on a range of IT items. B. It will push for this at the World Trade Organization ministerial meet in Seattle later this month. C. India had opposed the ITA – II earlier on the ground that it included certain defence items and consumer electronics not related to IT. D. The government will however, resist pressure to sign the Information Technology Agreement – II at Seattle.

S6. Corporate representatives involved in finalizing India’s stand argue that products covered under ITA – II are not of material export interest.

A
BDAC
B
BDCA
C
BCDA
D
ABCD
Question 26 Explanation: 
The proper order for the four sentences is BDAC
Question 27

S1. The Ibn Fadlan Manuscript represents the earliest known eyewitness account of Viking life and society.

A. The manuscript has not, of course, survived intact over that enormous span of time. B. It is an extraordinary document, describing in vivid detail, events which occurred more than a thousand years ago. C. The original manuscript disappeared centuries ago; only partial fragments have been preserved in later sources. D. It has a peculiar history of its own, and one no less remarkable than that of the text itself.

S6. One of these is an Arabic geographical lexicon of the 10th century, and another was discovered.

A
ABCD
B
BCAD
C
CBAD
D
BADC
Question 27 Explanation: 
The proper order for the four sentences is BADC
Question 28

S1. The study examined how a company’s ability to notice when competitors were reacting to its strategic moves affected its performance.

A. Each team’s performance was evaluated according to its final position relative to its four competitors. B. Competitive decisions were made in several rounds, which allowed each team time to analyse and interpret their rival’s reactions in the study. C. Based on a simulation called Markstrat 2, the study placed five teams in charge of competing companies in a hypothetical durable goods industry. D. In other words, if you know that the competition opened the Y office in response to your opening the X office, will you be more successful?

S6. The authors of the study are professors at North-eastern and Stanford universities.

A
DCAB
B
DBCA
C
DACB
D
DBAC
Question 28 Explanation: 
The proper order for the four sentences is DCAB
Question 29

S1. Galileo challenged the centrality of earth and man in the cosmos.

A. Picasso and other modernists challenged representational art. B. Revolutionaries are subversive, but their goal is not subversion. C. The American colonists challenged the feudal dependencies and inherited privileges in European society. D. Einstein challenged Newtonian physics.

S6. What the defenders of orthodoxy see as subversiveness, the champions of new thinking see as enlightenment.

A
CADB
B
DABC
C
ACBD
D
BACD
Question 29 Explanation: 
The proper order for the four sentences is CADB
Question 30

S1. Identify the 10 or 20 most fundamental beliefs that incumbents on your industry share.

A. But if you check in at 1 a.m. after a gruelling journey, why should you have to check out at the same time. B. Consider the hotel industry’s definition of a day, which begins when you check in and ends at noon, when you must check out. C. Also, there is no need to pay the same amount as the person who arrived at 5 the previous afternoon. D. What new opportunities present them when you relax those beliefs?

S6. If a rental company can manage a fleet of cars on a rotating 24 – hour basis, why can’t a hotel do exactly the same with a fleet of rooms?

A
DABC
B
DBAC
C
BCDA
D
CBAD
Question 30 Explanation: 
The proper order for the four sentences is DBAC
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]]> One Word Substitution https://jumpwhere.com/one-word-substitution/ Sun, 10 Sep 2017 23:30:22 +0000 https://jumpwhere.com/?p=2337 Explanation/ Important formulas Instruction: The noun substitution refers to the act of replacing one thing with another. Your football coach might make a substitution by sending you onto the field to take over for a player who is tired or injured. Substitution comes from the Middle Frenchword of the same spelling, meaning “a putting in place of another.” Instructions to take Aptitude Test Click on […]

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Instruction:

  • The noun substitution refers to the act of replacing one thing with another.
  • Your football coach might make a substitution by sending you onto the field to take over for a player who is tired or injured.
  • Substitution comes from the Middle Frenchword of the same spelling, meaning “a putting in place of another.”

Click on start to start taking the test.
Click on the option (A, B, C or D) to figure out the right answer.
You can answer multiple times till you get the right answer.
Once you get the right answer, explanations (if any) for the same will be showcased down.
On click of list, you get to see total no of questions, no of questions you answered and no of questions pending to answer.
On click of question number you will go to that particular question.
On click of END your test will end.
On click of ‘Get Results’ you will get to see correct answer for each questions.

One Word Substitution – Question & Answers

Congratulations – you have completed One Word Substitution – Question & Answers. You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%. Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
To issue a thunderous verbal attack ?
A
Languish
B
Animate
C
Fulminate
D
Invigorate
Question 1 Explanation: 
Fulminate means expressing vehement protest.
Question 2

One who is honourably discharged from service ?

A
Retired
B
Emeritus
C
Relieved
D
Emancipated
Question 2 Explanation: 
Emeritus means (of the former holder of an office, especially a university professor) having retired but allowed to retain their title as an honour.
Question 3
Present opposing arguments or evidence ?
A
Criticise
B
Rebuff
C
Reprimand
D
Rebut
Question 3 Explanation: 
Rebut claim or prove that (evidence or an accusation) is false.
Question 4
The policy of extending a country’s empire and influence ?
A
Communism
B
Internationalism
C
Capitalism
D
Imperialism
Question 4 Explanation: 
Imperialism means a policy of extending a country’s power and influence through colonization, use of military force, or other means.
Question 5
Of outstanding significance ?
A
Monumental
B
Rational
C
Ominous
D
Evident
Question 5 Explanation: 
Monumental means great in importance, extent, or size.
Question 6
Code of diplomatic etiquette and precedence ?
A
Statesmanship
B
Formalism
C
Hierarchy
D
Protocol
Question 6 Explanation: 
Protocol means the official procedure or system of rules governing affairs of state or diplomatic occasions.
Question 7
A fixed orbit in space in relation to earth ?
A
Geological
B
Geo-synchronous
C
Geo-centric
D
Geo-stationary
Question 7 Explanation: 
Geo-stationary means (of an artificial satellite of the earth) moving in a circular geosynchronous orbit in the plane of the equator, so that it appears to be stationary in the sky above a fixed point on the surface.
Question 8
That which cannot be believed ?
A
Incredible
B
Incredulous
C
Implausible
D
Unreliable
Question 8 Explanation: 
Incredible means impossible to believe.
Question 9
Murder of a brother ?
A
Patricide
B
Regicide
C
Homicide
D
Fratricide
Question 9 Explanation: 
Fratricide means the killing of one’s brother or sister.
Question 10
A voice loud enough to be heard ?
A
Audible
B
Applaudable
C
Laudable
D
Oral
Question 10 Explanation: 
Audible means able to be heard.
Question 11
The part of government which is concerned with making of rules ?
A
Court
B
Tribunal
C
Bar
D
Legislature
Question 11 Explanation: 
Legislature means the legislative body of a country or state.
Question 12
Something that relates to everyone in the world ?
A
General
B
Common
C
Usual
D
Universal
Question 12 Explanation: 
Universal means relating to or done by all people or things in the world or in a particular group; applicable to all cases.
Question 13
To walk with slow or regular Steps is to ?
A
Limp
B
Stride
C
Pace
D
Advance
Question 13 Explanation: 
Pace means a single step taken when walking or running.
Question 14
A style full of words ?
A
Verbose
B
Pedantic
C
Rhetorical
D
Abundant
Question 14 Explanation: 
Verbose means using or expressed in more words than are needed.
Question 15
One who dabbles in fine arts for the love of it and not for monetary gains ?
A
Connoisseur
B
Amateur
C
Professional
D
Dilettante
Question 15 Explanation: 
Amateur done in an unskilful or inept way.
Question 16
A school boy who cuts classes frequently is a ?
A
Defeatist
B
Sycophant
C
Truant
D
Martinet
Question 16 Explanation: 
Truant means a pupil who stays away from school without leave or explanation.
Question 17
Ready to believe ?
A
Credulous
B
Credible
C
Creditable
D
Incredible
Question 17 Explanation: 
Credulous means having or showing too great a readiness to believe things.
Question 18
Medical study of skin and its diseases ?
A
Dermatology
B
Endocrinology
C
Gynealogy
D
Orthopaedics
Question 18 Explanation: 
Dermatology means the branch of medicine concerned with the diagnosis and treatment of skin disorders.
Question 19
A dramatic performance ?
A
Mask
B
Mosque
C
Masque
D
Mascot
Question 19 Explanation: 
Masque means a form of amateur dramatic entertainment, popular among the nobility in 16th- and 17th-century England, which consisted of dancing and acting performed by masked players.
Question 20
One who does not marry, especially as a religious obligation ?
A
Bachelor
B
Celibate
C
Vigin
D
Recluse
Question 20 Explanation: 
Celibate means abstaining from marriage and sexual relations, typically for religious reasons.
Question 21
Pain reliever ?
A
Anonymus
B
Anodyne
C
Anthropologist
D
Antiquarian
Question 21 Explanation: 
Anodyne means not likely to cause offence or disagreement and somewhat dull.
Question 22
One who says sorry (Sorrow) for his mistakes ?
A
Apologist
B
Aporhtegm
C
Apostasy
D
Apostate
Question 22 Explanation: 
Apologist means a person who offers an argument in defence of something controversial.
Question 23
One who make a scientific study of human antiquities ?
A
Archipeloge
B
Archeologist
C
Archive
D
Aristocracy
Question 23 Explanation: 
Archeologist means a scientist who studies human history by digging up human remains and artifacts.
Question 24
That which can be heard ?
A
Audiometer
B
Audiophone
C
Audible
D
Aurora Australis
Question 24 Explanation: 
Audible means an able to be heard.
Question 25
Mixed Language ?
A
Barbarism
B
Barometer
C
Bellicose
D
Bevy
Question 25 Explanation: 
Barbarism means absence of culture and civilization.
Question 26
Life of a person written by somebody ?
A
Biologist
B
Biota
C
Black Box
D
Biography
Question 26 Explanation: 
Biography means an account of someone’s life written by someone else
Question 27
To obstain from buying or using ?
A
Brettle
B
Boycott
C
Buccal
D
Bureaucracy
Question 27 Explanation: 
Boycott means withdraw from commercial or social relations with (a country, organization, or person) as a punishment or protest.
Question 28
Emblem of medical profession and US army medical corps ?
A
Caliber
B
Caduceus
C
Calorimeter
D
Canon
Question 28 Explanation: 
Caduceus means an ancient Greek or Roman herald’s wand, typically one with two serpents twined round it, carried by the messenger god Hermes or Mercury.
Question 29
Describe the habits, merits and demerits of a man by seeing his skull carniologist ?
A
Carniology
B
Carnivore
C
Carrion
D
Catastrophe
Question 29 Explanation: 
Carniology means the scientific study of the shape and size of the skulls of different human races.
Question 30
It contains a series of lenses arranged to throw on screen an enlarged image of photography ?
A
Clarify
B
Circumlocution
C
Cinematograph
D
Coalesce
Question 30 Explanation: 
Cinematograph means the art of photography and camerawork in film-making.
Question 31
Me who is well versed in any subject a critical judge of any art particularly fine arts ?
A
Contagious Disease
B
Contemporary
C
Continent
D
Connisseur
Question 31 Explanation: 
Connisseur means an expert judge in matters of taste.
Question 32
Sudden collapse – general break-up – violent rush ?
A
Debtor
B
Debacle
C
Decelerate
D
Defendant
Question 32 Explanation: 
Debacle means a sudden and ignominious failure; a fiasco.
Question 33
A state of a person, who is asked to choose one of the two infavourable things ?
A
Diminish
B
Dilemna
C
Diminuendo
D
Dipsomania
Question 33 Explanation: 
Dilemna means a situation in which a difficult choice has to be made between two or more alternatives, especially ones that are equally undesirable.
Question 34
A place where one lives permanently ?
A
Dorsal
B
Dynamo
C
Domicile
D
Dissuade
Question 34 Explanation: 
Domicile means the country that a person treats as their permanent home, or lives in and has a substantial connection with.
Question 35
One who possess the quantities of woman ?
A
Egoeism
B
Dynamo
C
Effiminate
D
Dissuade
Question 35 Explanation: 
Effiminate means having characteristics regarded as typical of a woman; unmanly.
Question 36
One who studies the science of the variatees of human race ?
A
Enjoin
B
Ephemeral
C
Enthologist
D
Epicentre
Question 36 Explanation: 
Enthologist means a book or other collection of selected writings by various authors, usually in the same literary form, of the same period, or on the same subject.
Question 37
One who studies derivations of words – history of linguistic change ?
A
Etymologist
B
Eulogy
C
Euphimism
D
Euphony
Question 37 Explanation: 
Etymologist means a chronological account of the birth and development of a particular word or element of a word, often delineating its spread from one language to another and its evolving changes in form and meaning.
Question 38
Animals of a given region or period ?
A
Fealthy
B
Fauna
C
Fathometer
D
Feduciary
Question 38 Explanation: 
Fauna means the animals of a particular region, habitat, or geological period.
Question 39
A huge mass of snow moving slowly down the valley and stopes ?
A
Glacier
B
Gnosticism
C
Graminuiorous
D
Geneology
Question 39 Explanation: 
Glacier means is a persistent body of dense ice that is constantly moving under its own weight; it forms where the accumulation of snow exceeds its ablation (melting and sublimation) over many years, often centuries.
Question 40
One who studies the art of clock making ?
A
Horticulture
B
Hullabaloo
C
Hydraulics
D
Horologist
Question 40 Explanation: 
Horologist means Horology is the scientific study of time. Specifically, horology involves the measurement of time and the making of clocks. You need a small leap of imagination to see hour in horology, but if you do, you’ve pretty much nailed the meaning: it refers to the study of time and the art of making timepieces.
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]]> Idioms and Phrases II https://jumpwhere.com/idioms-phrases-ii/ Sun, 10 Sep 2017 03:46:16 +0000 https://jumpwhere.com/?p=2331 Explanation/ Important formulas Instruction: An idiom is a phrase wherein the words when used together, have a meaning different from the dictionary definitions of individual words To Solve idioms and phrases question one should break the word into component parts & identify the idioms, phrases. In Idioms words together have a meaning which is different from their individual dictionary meaning. Some proverbs/idioms are given […]

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Instruction:

  • An idiom is a phrase wherein the words when used together, have a meaning different from the dictionary definitions of individual words
  • To Solve idioms and phrases question one should break the word into component parts & identify the idioms, phrases.
  • In Idioms words together have a meaning which is different from their individual dictionary meaning.
  • Some proverbs/idioms are given below together with their meanings. Choose the correct meaning of proverb/idiom, If there is no correct meaning given, E (i.e.) ‘None of these’ will be the answer.

Click on start to start taking the Idioms and Phrases II test.
Click on the option (A, B, C or D) to figure out the right answer.
You can answer multiple times till you get the right answer.
Once you get the right answer, explanations (if any) for the same will be showcased down.
On click of the list, you get to see total no of questions, no of questions you answered and no of questions pending to answer.
On click of question number, you will go to that particular question.
On click of END, your test will end.
On click of ‘Get Results’ you will get to see correct answer for each questions.

Idioms and Phrases II – Question and answers

Congratulations – you have completed Idioms and Phrases II – Question and answers. You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%. Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1

Bid defiance?

A
To obey
B
To ignore
C
To follow
D
None of above
Question 1 Explanation: 
Example : His girl friend bade defiance to his wish to go for movie and instead they went for lunch in hotel
Question 2

Blow one’s trumpet?

A
To praise other
B
To praise leader
C
To praise ownself
D
To praise community
Question 2 Explanation: 
Example : I do not like him, he always blowing his own trumpet.
Question 3

Bury the hatchet?

A
To break peace
B
Joint operation of killing
C
To make peace
D
None of above
Question 3 Explanation: 
Example : His family members should bury the hatched to make peace in his home.
Question 4

Bring to book?

A
To punish
B
To serve
C
To praise
D
To write a story
Question 4 Explanation: 
Example : He was brought to book for his mistake.
Question 5

Blaze the trail?

A
To stop a movement
B
To join a movement
C
To protect a movement
D
To start a movement
Question 5 Explanation: 
Example : All great people names are written in history who blazed the trail for their nations.
Question 6

Broken Reed?

A
Continue support
B
Support that failed
C
Support endlessly
D
None of above
Question 6 Explanation: 
Example : In the time of need, his friend proved a broken reed.
Question 7

By dint of?

A
By force of
B
By permission of
C
By fear of
D
By blessing of
Question 7 Explanation: 
Example : He became IPS by dint of his hard work.
Question 8

Charley horse?

A
Very rapid
B
Very weak
C
Stiffness
D
Boldness
Question 8 Explanation: 
Example : My leg has hurt while playing now I have a Charley horse.
Question 9

Cart before the horse?

A
To be ready to go
B
To be very active
C
To do things in reverse order
D
To do things in right order
Question 9 Explanation: 
Example : Having dessert before dinner is like putting the cart before the horse
Question 10

Chalk and Cheese?

A
Different from each other
B
Having same properties
C
Having fun together
D
Making plans
Question 10 Explanation: 
Example : They can never be friends they are as different as chalk and cheese.
Question 11

Cry for the moon?

A
To wish for something impossible
B
To wish for something accessible
C
To try to have something by bad means
D
None of above
Question 11 Explanation: 
Example : For me winning a lottery is just like crying for the moon.
Question 12

Carry the day?

A
To have great fun
B
To do something wrong
C
To win a victory
D
To loose something
Question 12 Explanation: 
Example : By taking many wickets India carried the day in test match.
Question 13

Cloven hoof?

A
The evil intension
B
The nice intension
C
To do something religious
D
To help someone silently
Question 13 Explanation: 
Example : He showed cloven hoof by cheating his parents.
Question 14

Cry over spilt milk?

A
Approve
B
Be happy
C
Praise
D
Repent
Question 14 Explanation: 
Repent means regret
Example : People use to cry over split milk if they do not execute tasks with proper planning.
Question 15

Call names?

A
To praise
B
To abuse
C
To respect
D
To order
Question 15 Explanation: 
Example : Rahul called me names once but still I helped him.
Question 16

Call a spade a spade?

A
To disrespect
B
To say in angre
C
To speak plainly
D
To manipulate
Question 16 Explanation: 
Example : He never manipulate things, he always call a spade a spade.
Question 17

Cut both ends?

A
Very big loss
B
Very hard worker
C
In favour of both sides
D
Against both sides
Question 17 Explanation: 
Example : While participating in a debate you should not cut both ends.
Question 18

Crocodile tears?

A
True tears
B
Insincere tears
C
Very angry
D
Very Sad
Question 18 Explanation: 
Example : It is very tough to recognize Crocodile tears of false friends.
Question 19

Carrot and stick policy?

A
Reward and punishment
B
Dishonest
C
Arrogant
D
Selfish policy
Question 19 Explanation: 
Example : Great entrepreneurs always follow carrot and stick policy.
Question 20

Dig the grave?

A
to make space to rest
B
to destroy
C
to make space for planning
D
to build something
Question 20 Explanation: 
Example : By taking side of the culprit he dug the grave of his reputation.
Question 21

Damp squib?

A
Great honour
B
Great win
C
Complete failure
D
None of above
Question 21 Explanation: 
Example : Even the intervention of their leader proved a damp squib to resolve their matter.
Question 22

Die-hard?

A
very weak
B
about to die
C
living life full
D
persistent in struggle
Question 22 Explanation: 
Example : He will not surrender easily as he is a die-hard person.
Question 23

Eat humble pie?

A
to forgive
B
to apologize
C
to request
D
to order
Question 23 Explanation: 
Example : Seema had to eat a humble pie for her mistake.
Question 24

Ever and Anon?

A
true promise
B
false promise
C
frequent
D
sometimes
Question 24 Explanation: 
Example : I use to visit him ever and anon.
Question 25

Face the music?

A
dance at a party
B
unpleasant consequences
C
compose a song
D
none of above
Question 25 Explanation: 
Example : He have to face the music for his wrong deeds.
Question 26

Fish in troubles waters?

A
to take revenge
B
to take advantage of trouble of others
C
to take risk
D
to get high profits
Question 26 Explanation: 
Example : Clever businessmen fish in troubled water when there is scarcity of things.
Question 27

Fly in the face of?

A
coward
B
to defy
C
do acting
D
do not follow instructions
Question 27 Explanation: 
Example : By not obeying his father he fly in the face of his orders.
Question 28

Full tilt?

A
with maximum enery
B
eating maximum
C
thinking of eating
D
with no demand
Question 28 Explanation: 
Example : As exam are coming near he is studying with full tilt.
Question 29

Giddy goat?

A
to act bravely
B
to act slowly
C
to act foolishly
D
to act as adviced
Question 29 Explanation: 
Example : His this wrong decision was just like the act of giddy goat.
Question 30

Give up the ghost?

A
give up a fear
B
give up in the war
C
to pass away
D
to rest for some time
Question 30 Explanation: 
Example : After a long illness he gave up the ghost last week.
Question 31

Go to the dogs?

A
to be ruined
B
to be in danger
C
to take risk
D
to disobey elders
Question 31 Explanation: 
Example : Due to his bad habits his parents will go to the dogs.
Question 32

Grease the palm?

A
to break promise
B
to break trust
C
to help
D
to bribe
Question 32 Explanation: 
Example : You will have to grease the palm of clerk for quick action on this file.
Question 33

Hanky Panky?

A
Jugglery
B
To
C
To be friendly
D
To be a cheater
Question 33 Explanation: 
Example : None of this hanky panky, just tell me the truth
Question 34

Hold one’s tongue?

A
to appriciate
B
to keep quiet
C
to tease
D
to give fake smile
Question 34 Explanation: 
Example : I advised him to hold his tongue before teacher.
Question 35

Hope against hope?

A
Very happy
B
Very Sad
C
hope in-spite of disappointment
D
hoping great results
Question 35 Explanation: 
Example : He did not attempt major questions in exam, we know he will fail, but still we are hoping against hope.
Question 36

In a lurch?

A
to leave a friend in difficulty
B
to enjoy a party
C
to have a fun time
D
to show kindness
Question 36 Explanation: 
Example : Never leave your friends in a lurch.
Question 37

In a flutter?

A
to be depressed
B
in low spirits
C
excited
D
prominent
Question 37 Explanation: 
Example : He is in a flutter as he is going for PO interview.
Question 38

Jaundiced eye?

A
Weakness
B
In trouble
C
Prejudice
D
Having doubt
Question 38 Explanation: 
Prejudice means Preconceived opinion not based on reason or experience.
Example : You must not evaluate anything with a jaundiced eye.
Question 39

Kick one’s heels?

A
to dance
B
to never stop
C
to be quick
D
to waste time in waiting
Question 39 Explanation: 
Example : We had to kick our heels to meet the minister.
Question 40

Lost in the clouds?

A
To enjoy
B
To wait
C
Confused
D
Very much sure
Question 40 Explanation: 
Example : We often lost in clouds in exam, if we have not done practice of questions.
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There are 40 questions to complete.

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]]> Idioms and Phrases I https://jumpwhere.com/idioms-and-phrases/ Sat, 09 Sep 2017 03:47:21 +0000 https://jumpwhere.com/?p=1792 [vc_row][vc_column][vc_toggle title=”Explanation/ Important formulas:” el_id=”1481454282462-60885454-0285″] Instruction: Idioms and Phrases I – An idiom is a phrase wherein the words when used together, have a meaning different from the dictionary definitions of individual words To Solve idioms and phases question one should break the word into component parts & identify the idioms, phrases. In Idioms words together have […]

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Instruction:

  • Idioms and Phrases I – An idiom is a phrase wherein the words when used together, have a meaning different from the dictionary definitions of individual words
  • To Solve idioms and phases question one should break the word into component parts & identify the idioms, phrases.
  • In Idioms words together have a meaning which is different from their individual dictionary meaning.
  • Some proverbs/idioms are given below together with their meanings. Choose the correct meaning of proverb/idiom, If there is no correct meaning given, E (i.e.) ‘None of these’ will be the answer.

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Idioms and Phrases I - Question and Answers

Congratulations - you have completed Idioms and Phrases I - Question and Answers. You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%. Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
Having sold off his factory, he is now a gentleman at large.
A
Has no serious occupation
B
Is living comfortably
C
Is respected by everybody
D
Is held in high esteem
Question 2
Though he has lot of money, yet all his plans are built upon sand.
A
established on insecure foundations
B
based on inexperience
C
resting on cheap material
D
resting on immature ideas
Question 3
His plan was so complicated that it floored his listeners.
A
entertained
B
puzzled
C
annoyed
D
encouraged
Question 4
There has been bad blood between the two communities even before shouting.
A
Impure blood
B
Ill feeling
C
Bloody fights
D
Quarrels
Question 5
The curious neighbours were disappointed as the young couple's quarrel was just a storm in a tea cup.
A
violent quarrel
B
fuss about a trifle
C
brittle situation
D
quarrel about tea cups
Question 6
Mohan always keeps himself to himself
A
Is too busy
B
Is selfish
C
Is unsociable
D
Does not take sides
Question 7
While the ladies continued their small talk in the drawing room, I felt bored.
A
whispering
B
backbiting
C
gossip
D
light conversation
Question 8
My car broke down on way to the railway station.
A
stopped
B
met with an accident
C
ran out of petrol
D
failed to work
Question 9
My father strained every nerve to enable me to get settled in life.
A
worked very hard
B
spent a huge amount
C
tried all tricks
D
bribed several persons
Question 10
He went back on his promise to vote for me.
A
withdrew
B
forgot
C
reinforced
D
supported
Question 11
The old beggar ran amuck and began to throw stones at the passerby.
A
became desperate
B
ran about wildly
C
become annoyed
D
felt disgusted
Question 12
I cannot conceive of a time when I was without a refrigerator
A
Imagine
B
Give birth
C
Understand
D
Depend
Question 13
Harassed by repeated acts of injustice. he decided to put his foot down.
A
not to yield
B
resign
C
to accept the proposal unconditionally
D
withdraw
Question 14
The class could not keep a straight face on hearing the strange pronunciation of the new teacher.
A
remain silent
B
remain serious
C
remain mute
D
remain disturbed
Question 15
The parliamentary inquiry into the Bofors deal did not bring to light any startling facts.
A
Prove
B
Probe
C
Highlight
D
Disclose
Question 16
His speech went down well with the majority of the audience.
A
found acceptance with
B
was attentively listened to by
C
was appreciated by
D
was applauded by
Question 17
Rohit has bitten off more than he can chew.
A
Is trying to do much
B
Is very greedy
C
Is always hungry
D
Has little regard for others
Question 18
The detective left no stone unturned to trace the culprit.
A
took no pains
B
did very irrelevant things
C
resorted to illegitimate practices
D
used all available means
Question 19
In spite of the immense pressure exerted by the militants, the Government has decided not to give in.
A
accede
B
yield
C
oblige
D
confirm
Question 20
Their business is now on its last legs.
A
About to fructify
B
About to perish
C
About to produce results
D
About to take off
Question 21
He believes in the policy of making hay while the sun shines.
A
giving bribes to get his work done
B
seeking advice from one and all
C
helping those who help him
D
making the best use of a favourable situation
Question 22
His friends advised him to be fair and square in his dealings.
A
Careful
B
Considerate
C
Polite
D
Upright
Question 23
It is high time that India did something about the population problem.
A
already late
B
appropriate time
C
desired occasion
D
auspicious moment
Question 24
He is always standing up for the weak and oppressed.
A
Boosting the claims of
B
Championing the cause of
C
Seeking help of others for
D
Moving about with
Question 25
Turban is in vogue in some communities.
A
in fashion
B
out of use
C
vaguely used
D
never used
Question 26
I requested him to put in a word for me.
A
introduce
B
assist
C
support
D
recommend
Question 27
The dacoit murdered the man in cold blood.
A
coldly
B
boldly
C
ruthlessly
D
deliberately
Question 28
He is always picking holes in every project.
A
creating problems in
B
finding fault with
C
suggesting improvement in
D
asking irrelevant questions on
Question 29
Pt. Nehru was born with a silver spoon in his mouth.
A
born in a middle class family
B
born in a wealthy family
C
born in a royal family
D
born in a family of nationalists
Question 30
The arrival of the mother-in-law in the family proved a rift in the lute.
A
caused unnecessary worries
B
brought about disharmony
C
caused a pleasant atmosphere
D
brought about a disciplined atmosphere
Question 31
The prince did not take after the king.
A
run after
B
follow
C
precede
D
resemble
Question 32
Don't lose patience, things will improve by and by
A
soon
B
finally
C
gradually
D
unexpectedly
Question 33
Do not imagine that Dharmendra is really sorry that his wife died. Those are only crocodile tears.
A
Pretended sorrow
B
Tears a crocodile
C
A weeping crocodile
D
Mild regret
Question 34
The P.M has pulled up Orissa partymen.
A
elevated
B
rewarded
C
punished
D
reprimanded
Question 35
He did me a good turn by recommending me for the post of Vice Principal.
A
returned my kindness
B
did an act of kindness
C
improved my prospects
D
became suddenly good
Question 36
Having sold off his factory, he is now a gentleman at large.
A
Has no serious occupation
B
Is living comfortably
C
Is respected by everybody
D
Is held in high esteem
Question 37
Though he has lot of money, yet all his plans are built upon sand.
A
established on insecure foundations
B
based on inexperience
C
resting on cheap material
D
resting on immature ideas
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There are 37 questions to complete.

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]]> Direct and Indirect Speech https://jumpwhere.com/direct-indirect-speech/ Fri, 08 Sep 2017 04:22:19 +0000 https://jumpwhere.com/?p=2339 [vc_row][vc_column][vc_toggle title=”Explanation/ Important formulas:” el_id=”1481454282462-60885454-0285″] Instruction: If in direct speech you find say/says or will say then DO NOT CHANGE THE TENSE that you can find within the quotation marks. One should change time Expression (i.e now-then, today-that day etc). One can use Conjunction ‘that’ is often used before the indirect sentence. That is never […]

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Instruction:

  • If in direct speech you find say/says or will say then DO NOT CHANGE THE TENSE that you can find within the quotation marks.
  • One should change time Expression (i.e now-then, today-that day etc).
  • One can use Conjunction ‘that’ is often used before the indirect sentence.
  • That is never used in sentences reporting questions, instead we often use ‘if’.

E.g.: He asked me if I would come to the party.

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You can answer multiple times till you get the right answer.
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On click of list, you get to see total no of questions, no of questions you answered and no of questions pending to answer.
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Direct and Indirect Speech - Question & Answers

Congratulations - you have completed Direct and Indirect Speech - Question & Answers. You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%. Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
He said to the interviewer, “Could you please repeat the question?”
A
He requested the interviewer to please repeat the question
B
He requested the interviewer to repeat the question
C
He requested the interviewer if he could repeat the question
D
He requested the interviewer if he could please repeat the question
Question 2
He said to her, “What a cold day!”
A
He told her that it was a cold day
B
He exclaimed sorrowfully that it was a cold day
C
He exclaimed that it was a cold day
D
He exclaimed that it was a very cold day
Question 3
The teacher said to Mahesh, “Congratulations! Wish you success in life.”
A
The teacher to congratulated Mahesh and wished him success in life
B
The teacher congratulated Mahesh and said with you success in life
C
The teacher wished congratulations and success in life to Mahesh
D
The teacher said congratulations to Mahesh and wished him success in life
Question 4
I said to him, “Why are you working so hard”?
A
I asked him why he was working so hard
B
I asked him why was he working so hard
C
I asked him why he had been working so hard
D
I asked him why had he been working so hard
Question 5
David said to Anna, “Mona will leave for her native place tomorrow.”
A
David told Anna that Mona left for her native place the next day
B
David told Anna that Mona would leave for her native place the next day
C
David told Anna that Mona will leave for her native place tomorrow
D
David told to Anna that Mona would be leaving for her native place tomorrow
Question 6
The Captain said to his men, “Stand at ease.”
A
The Captain wanted his men to stand at ease
B
The Captain commanded his men to stand at ease
C
The Captain urged his men to stand at ease
D
The Captain told his men that they should stand at ease
Question 7
“Where will you be tomorrow,” I said, “in case I have to ring you?”
A
I asked where you will be the next day in case I will ring him
B
I said to him where he will be in case I have to ring him
C
I enquired about his where abouts the next day in case I would have to ring up
D
I asked where he would be the next day in case I had to ring him
Question 8
Farhan asked Geeta, “Could you lend me a hundred rupees until tomorrow?”
A
Farhan asked Geeta whether she could lend him a hundred rupees until the next day
B
Farhan asked Geeta whether she could lend him a hundred rupees until tomorrow
C
Farhan asked Geeta whether she could lend me a hundred rupees until the next day
D
Farhan asked whether Geeta could lend me a hundred rupees until the next day
Question 9
Jagdish said, “We passed by a beautiful lake when we went on a trip to Goa.”
A
Jagdish said that they passed by a beautiful lake when they had gone on a trip to Goa
B
Jagdish said that they had passed by a beautiful lake when they went on a trip to Goa
C
Jagdish said that they had passed by a beautiful lake when they had gone on a trip to Goa
D
Jagdish said they passed by a beautiful lake when they went on a trip to Goa
Question 10
Kiran asked me, “Did you see the cricket match on television last night.
A
Kiran asked me whether I saw the cricket match on television the earlier night
B
Kiran asked me whether I had seen the cricket match on television last night
C
Kiran asked me whether I had seen the cricket match on television the earlier night
D
Kiran asked me did I see the cricket match on television last night
Question 11
Pawan said to me, “If I hear any news, I’ll phone you.”
A
Pawan told me that if he heard any new, he will phone me
B
Pawan told me that if he will hear any news, he will phone me
C
Pawan told me that if he heard any news, he would phone me
D
Pawan told me if he had heard any news, he would phone me
Question 12
Seeta said to me, “Can you give me your pen?”
A
Seeta asked me if I can give me your pen
B
Seeta asked me can I give her my pen
C
Seeta asked me if I gave her my pen
D
Seeta asked me if I could give her my pen
Question 13
He said to me, “I have often told you not to play with fire.”
A
He said that he has often been telling me not to play with fire
B
He told me that he had often told me not to play with fire
C
He said to me that he often told me not to play with fire
D
He remained me that he had often told me not to play with fire
Question 14
He said, “Be quiet and listen to my words.”
A
He urged them to be quiet and listen to his words
B
He said you should be quiet and listen to my words
C
He urged them and said be quiet and listen to words
D
He said they should be quiet and listen to his words
Question 15
“You can’t bathe in this sea,” he said to me, “it’s very rough.”
A
He said that you couldn’t bathe in that sea if it was very rough
B
He said that I couldn’t bathe in that sea as it was very rough
C
He said that I can’t bathe in this sea because it’s very rough
D
He said that you can’t bathe in this sea since it was very rough
Question 16
The father warned his son that he should be beware of him.
A
The father warned his son, “Be careful about him.”
B
The father warned his son, “Before of him!”
C
The father warned his son, “Watch that chap!”
D
The father warned his son, “Don’t fall into the trap.”
Question 17
The tailor said to him, “Will you have the suit ready by tomorrow evening?”
A
The tailor asked him if he will like to have the suit ready by the next evening
B
The tailor asked him if he would have the suit ready by the next evening
C
The tailor asked him that he will have the suit ready by the next evening
D
The tailor asked him that he would had the suit ready by the next evening
Question 18
Manna asked Rohan, “Have you sat in a trolley bus before?”
A
Manna asked Rohan whether he had sat in a trolley bus earlier.
B
Manna asked Rohan if he sat on a trolley bus before.
C
Manna asked Rohan if he has ever sat in a trolley bus
D
Manna asked Rohan had he sat in a trolley bus before.
Question 19
“What about going for a swim,” he said, “It’s quite fine now.”
A
He asked me what about going for a swim as it was quite fine them
B
He suggested going for a swim as it was quite fine
C
He proposed going for a swim as it was quite fine
D
He advised to me go for a swim as it was quite fine
Question 20
The poor examine said, “O God, take pity on me.”
A
The poor examinee exclaimed that God take pity on him
B
The poor examinee, invoking God, improve him to take pity on him
C
The poor examinee prayed God to take pity on him
D
The poor examine asked God to take pity on him
Question 21
The man said, “No, I refused to confers guilt.”
A
The man emphatically refused to confers guilt.
B
The man told that he did not confers guilt.
C
The man was stubborn enough to confess guilt.
D
The man refused to confers his guilt.
Question 22
My cousin said, “My room-mate had snored throughout the night.”
A
my cousin felt that her roommate may be snoring throughout the night.
B
my cousin said that her room-mate snored throughout the night.
C
my cousin complained to me that her roommate is snoring throughout the night.
D
my cousin told me that her room-mate snored throughout the night.
Question 23
Nita ordered her servant to bring her cup of tea.
A
Nita told her servant, "Bring a cup of tea."
B
Nita said to her servant, "Bring me a cup of tea."
C
Nita said, "Bring me a cup of tea."
D
Nita told her servant, "Bring her that cup of tea."
Question 24
His father ordered him to go to his room and study.
A
His father said to him, "Go and study in your room."
B
His father said, "Go to your room and study."
C
His father shouted, "Go right now to your study room"
D
His father said firmly, "Go and study in your room."
Question 25
“What did you see at the South Pole?” Ashok asked Anil.
A
Ashok asked Anil what did he see at the South Pole
B
Ashok asked Anil what he had seen at the South Pole
C
Ashok asked Anil if he saw anything at the South Pole
D
Ashok asked Anil that he saw anything at the South Pole
Question 26
“If you don’t keep quite I shall shoot you”, he said to her in a calm voice.
A
He warned her to shoot if she didn't keep quite calmly.
B
Calmly he warned her that be quite or else he will have to shoot her.
C
He said calmly that I shall shoot you if you don't be quite.
D
He warned her calmly that he would shoot her if she didn't keep quite.
Question 27
She said that her brother was getting married
A
She said, "Her brother is getting married."
B
She told, "Her brother is getting married."
C
She said, "My brother is getting married."
D
She said, "My brother was getting married."
Question 28
She exclaimed with sorrow that was a very miserable plight.
A
She said with sorrow, "What a pity it is."
B
She said, "What a mystery it is."
C
She said, "What a miserable sight it is."
D
She said, "What a miserable plight it is."
Question 29
He exclaimed with joy that India had won the Sahara Cup.
A
He said, "India won the Sahara Cup"
B
He said, "How! India will win the Sahara Cup"
C
He said, "India has won the Sahara Cup"
D
He said, "Hurrah! India has won the Sahara Cup"
Question 30
Dhruv said that he was sick and tired of working for that company.
A
Dhruv said, "He was tired of that company."
B
Dhruv said, "I will be tired of working for that company."
C
Dhruv said, "I am sick and tired of working for this company."
D
Dhruv said to me, "I am sick and tired of working for this company."
Question 31
The little girl said to her mother, "Did the sun rise in the East?"
A
The little girl said to her mother that the sun rose in the East.
B
The little girl asked her mother if the sun rose in the East.
C
The little girl said to her mother if the sun rises in the East.
D
The little girl asked her mother if the sun is in the East.
Question 32
"Please don't go away", she said.
A
She said to please her and not go away.
B
She told me to go away.
C
She begged me not to go away.
D
She begged that I not go away
Once you are finished, click the button below. Any items you have not completed will be marked incorrect. Get Results
There are 32 questions to complete.
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]]> Antonyms https://jumpwhere.com/antonyms/ Thu, 07 Sep 2017 05:30:04 +0000 https://jumpwhere.com/?p=2255 [vc_row][vc_column][vc_toggle title=”Explanation/ Important formulas:” el_id=”1481454282462-60885454-0285″] Instruction: Find a word opposite in meaning to another Also Compare synonyms and antonyms Use both the synonym (a word having the same or nearly the same meaning as another word) and the antonym to construct sentences using the same context or situation. This procedure enables you to see a […]

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Instruction:

  • Find a word opposite in meaning to another

Also Compare synonyms and antonyms

  • Use both the synonym (a word having the same or nearly the same meaning as another word) and the antonym to construct sentences using the same context or situation. This procedure enables you to see a word from both sides.
  • If you can follow this strategy, it would definitely solve your problem of learning new words without forgetting their meaning.

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Click on start to start taking the test.
Click on the option (A, B, C or D) to figure out the right answer.
You can answer multiple times till you get the right answer.
Once you get the right answer, explanations (if any) for the same will be showcased down.
On click of list, you get to see total no of questions, no of questions you answered and no of questions pending to answer.
On click of question number you will go to that particular question.
On click of END your test will end.
On click of ‘Get Results’ you will get to see correct answer for each questions.
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Antonyms - Question and Answers

Congratulations - you have completed Antonyms - Question and Answers. You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%. Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
STRINGENT
A
General
B
Vehement
C
Lenient
D
Magnanimous
Question 1 Explanation: 
STRINGENT means strict, precise, and exacting.
Question 2
MINOR
A
Big
B
Major
C
Tall
D
Heavy
Question 2 Explanation: 
MINOR means lesser in importance, seriousness, or significance.
Question 3
REVEALED
A
Denied
B
Concealed
C
Ignored
D
Overlooked
Question 3 Explanation: 
REVEALED means make (previously unknown or secret information) known to others.
Question 4
ESSENTIAL
A
Extra
B
Noughts
C
Minors
D
Trivial
Question 4 Explanation: 
ESSENTIAL means absolutely necessary; extremely important
Question 5
FICKLE
A
Courageous
B
Sincere
C
Steadfast
D
Humble
Question 5 Explanation: 
FICKLE means changing frequently, especially as regards one's loyalties or affections.
Question 6
CONCEDE
A
Object
B
Refuse
C
Grant
D
Accede
Question 6 Explanation: 
CONCEDE means admit or agree that something is true after first denying or resisting it.
Question 7
VIOLENT
A
Humble
B
Harmless
C
Gentle
D
Tame
Question 7 Explanation: 
VIOLENT means using or involving physical force intended to hurt, damage, or kill someone or something.
Question 8
VIRTUOUS
A
Wicked
B
Corrupt
C
Vicious
D
Scandalous
Question 8 Explanation: 
VIRTUOUS means having or showing high moral standards.
Question 9
GAIN
A
Loose
B
Fall
C
Lost
D
Lose
Question 9 Explanation: 
GAIN means obtain or secure (something wanted or desirable).
Question 10
PRELIMINARY
A
Final
B
First
C
Secondary
D
Initial
Question 10 Explanation: 
PRELIMINARY means preceding or done in preparation for something fuller or more important.
Question 11
FLAGITIOUS
A
Innocent
B
Vapid
C
Ignorant
D
Frivolous
Question 11 Explanation: 
FLAGITIOUS means (of a person or their actions) criminal; villainous
Question 12
BELITTLE
A
Criticize
B
Flatter
C
Exaggerate
D
Adore
Question 12 Explanation: 
BELITTLE means dismiss (someone or something) as unimportant.
Question 13
STARTLED
A
Amused
B
Relaxed
C
Endless
D
Astonished
Question 13 Explanation: 
STARTLED means cause to feel sudden shock or alarm.
Question 14
BUSY
A
Occupied
B
Engrossed
C
Relaxed
D
Engaged
Question 14 Explanation: 
BUSY means having a great deal to do.
Question 15
FRESH
A
Faulty
B
Sluggish
C
Disgraceful
D
Stale
Question 15 Explanation: 
FRESH means not previously known or used; new or different.
Question 16
EXPAND
A
Convert
B
Condense
C
Congest
D
Conclude
Question 16 Explanation: 
EXPAND means become or make larger or more extensive.
Question 17
MORTAL
A
Divine
B
Immortal
C
Spiritual
D
Eternal
Question 17 Explanation: 
MORTAL means (of a living human being, often in contrast to a divine being) subject to death)
Question 18
QUIESCENT
A
Active
B
Dormant
C
Weak
D
Unconcerned
Question 18 Explanation: 
QUIESCENT means in a state or period of inactivity or dormancy.
Question 19
OBEYING
A
Ordering
B
Following
C
Refusing
D
Contradicting
Question 19 Explanation: 
OBEYING means submit to the authority of (someone) or comply with (a law).
Question 20
FRAUDULENT
A
Candid
B
Direct
C
Forthright
D
Genuine
Question 20 Explanation: 
FRAUDULENT means characterized by, involving, or proceeding from fraud, as actions, enterprise, methods, or gains.
Question 21
CULPABLE
A
Defendable
B
Blameless
C
Careless
D
Irresponsible
Question 21 Explanation: 
CULPABLE means deserving blame.
Question 22
AGONY  
A
meet time constraints
B
aim better resource sharing
C
aim better system utilization
D
aim low system overhead
Question 22 Explanation: 
Agony means extreme physical and mental pain
Question 23
CANDID
A
Bluff
B
Devious
C
Equal
D
Blunt
Question 23 Explanation: 
CANDID means truthful and straightforward; frank.
Question 24
AMENDING
A
Alter
B
Ameliorate
C
Better
D
Debase
Question 24 Explanation: 
AMENDING means make minor changes to (a text, piece of legislation, etc.) in order to make it fairer or more accurate, or to reflect changing circumstances.
Question 25
BELLYACHE
A
Fuss
B
Groan
C
Appreciate
D
Whine
Question 25 Explanation: 
BELLYACHE means a stomach pain.
Question 26
GRUNT
A
Complain
B
Croak
C
Find fault
D
Applaud
Question 26 Explanation: 
GRUNT means make a low, short guttural sound.
Question 27
SQUEAK
A
Cheep
B
Creak
C
Silence
D
Cry
Question 27 Explanation: 
SQUEAK means a short, high-pitched sound or cry.
Question 28
FRUGALITY
A
Avarice
B
Wastefulness
C
Avariciousness
D
Carefulness
Question 28 Explanation: 
FRUGALITY means the quality of being economical with money or food; thriftiness.
Question 29
SHIRKED
A
Meet
B
Bypass
C
Cheat
D
Creep
Question 29 Explanation: 
SHIRKED means smile in an irritatingly smug, conceited, or silly way.
Question 30
FACILE
A
Ready
B
Profound
C
Simple
D
Shallow
Question 30 Explanation: 
FACILE means ignoring the true complexities of an issue; superficial.
Question 31
LIBERAL
A
Wanting
B
Aplenty
C
Bounteous
D
Bountiful
Question 31 Explanation: 
LIBERAL means willing to respect or accept behaviour or opinions different from one's own; open to new ideas.
Question 32
CAPRICIOUS
A
Approximate
B
Capricious
C
Rational
D
Discretionary
Question 32 Explanation: 
CAPRICIOUS means given to sudden and unaccountable changes of mood or behaviour.
Question 33
MERCY
A
Affection
B
Amity
C
Malevolence
D
Lenity
Question 33 Explanation: 
MERCY means compassion or forgiveness shown towards someone whom it is within one's power to punish or harm.
Question 34
EXTORTION
A
Wholesomeness
B
Stealing
C
Fraud
D
Rapacity
Question 34 Explanation: 
EXTORTION means the practice of obtaining something, especially money, through force or threats.
Question 35
BRISK
A
Agile
B
Bustling
C
Sluggish
D
Nimble
Question 35 Explanation: 
BRISK means active and energetic.
Question 36
STIGMA
A
Blame
B
Blot
C
Taint
D
Credit
Question 36 Explanation: 
STIGMA means a mark of disgrace associated with a particular circumstance, quality, or person.
Question 37
RETREAT
A
Ebb
B
Arrival
C
Evacuation
D
Flight
Question 37 Explanation: 
RETREAT means withdraw from enemy forces as a result of their superior power or after a defeat.
Question 38
DREADFUL
A
Pleasant
B
Atrocious
C
Awful
D
Beastly
Question 38 Explanation: 
DREADFUL means causing or involving great suffering, fear, or unhappiness; extremely bad or serious.
Question 39
HUMILITY
A
Unpretentiousness
B
Unobtrusiveness
C
Timorousness
D
Arrogance
Question 39 Explanation: 
HUMILITY means the quality of having a modest or low view of one's importance.
Question 40
ELATED
A
Upset
B
Peppy
C
Snappy
D
Zestful
Question 40 Explanation: 
ELATED means make (someone) ecstatically happy.
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